Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure receiving furosemide develops muscle weakness. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer potassium supplements as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client’s potassium levels.
• C. Instruct the client to increase their salt intake.
• D. Discontinue the furosemide.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle weakness in a client receiving furosemide (a diuretic) is often a sign of hypokalemia, as furosemide increases potassium loss. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to identify and address any imbalances and prevent complications such as arrhythmias. Administering potassium supplements without monitoring the levels can lead to hyperkalemia, which has its own set of serious complications. Instructing the client to increase salt intake is not appropriate in this situation as it does not address the underlying electrolyte imbalance. Discontinuing furosemide abruptly can worsen heart failure symptoms; therefore, monitoring potassium levels and adjusting the treatment accordingly is the most appropriate action.

2. A combination multi-drug cocktail is being considered for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500. Which nursing assessment of the client is most crucial in determining whether therapy should be initiated?

• A. Presence of viral symptoms
• B. Engages in high-risk behaviors
• C. Willingness to comply with complex drug schedules
• D. History of opportunistic infections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial nursing assessment in determining whether therapy should be initiated for an asymptomatic HIV-infected client with a CD4 cell count of 500 is the client's willingness to comply with complex drug schedules. Adherence to antiretroviral therapy is essential for its effectiveness. Assessing the client's willingness and ability to comply with the complex medication regimen is crucial to ensure successful treatment and prevent drug resistance. Choices A, B, and D, although important in the overall care of the client, are not as crucial as assessing the client's willingness to adhere to the prescribed drug regimen.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
• B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
• C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.

4. An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia and prescribed penicillin G potassium. Which factor increases the risk of an adverse reaction?

• A. Sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae.
• B. Previous treatment with penicillin.
• C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension.
• D. Documented allergy to sulfa drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension can increase the risk of hyperkalemia and interact with penicillin, leading to adverse reactions. Choice A is incorrect because the sputum culture showing Streptococcus pneumoniae is an expected finding in a patient with pneumonia and does not increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin. Choice B is incorrect as previous treatment with penicillin does not necessarily increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin if there was no history of allergic reactions. Choice D is also incorrect as a documented allergy to sulfa drugs does not directly increase the risk of an adverse reaction to penicillin.

5. An 11-year-old client admitted to the mental health unit after threatening self-harm. What is the best activity to establish rapport and promote coping?

• A. Bring the client to the team meeting to discuss the treatment plan.
• B. Play a board game with the client and start discussing stressors.
• C. Explain the purpose of each medication the client is taking.
• D. Ask the client to write feelings in a journal and review together.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Playing a board game with the client is an effective way to establish rapport in a relaxed setting, allowing the client to open up about stressors. This activity promotes coping by creating a safe and engaging environment for the client to express their feelings. Choices A, C, and D may not be suitable initially as they involve more formal or intrusive approaches that may not be suitable for building rapport with a client experiencing emotional distress.

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