HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with Addison's disease becomes confused and weak. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately.
- B. Check the client’s electrolyte levels.
- C. Administer a dose of normal saline.
- D. Measure the client’s blood pressure in both arms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a dose of hydrocortisone immediately. In Addison's disease, confusion and weakness can be signs of an adrenal crisis. Administering hydrocortisone promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Checking electrolyte levels (Choice B) is important but not the first action in managing an acute adrenal crisis. Administering normal saline (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Measuring blood pressure in both arms (Choice D) is not the initial action needed to address the client's confusion and weakness in Addison's disease.
2. A male client with schizophrenia is socially reclusive and pacing in the hallway. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?
- A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
- B. Encourage the client to rest.
- C. Plan an activity that includes physical exercise.
- D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. In this situation, the client's behavior suggests agitation and restlessness, which could potentially escalate. Observation is crucial to monitor any changes in behavior, assess for signs of distress, and ensure the client's safety. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for managing the client's behavior. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) might not be effective if the client is highly agitated. Planning an activity that includes physical exercise (Choice C) could exacerbate the situation rather than address the current behavior. Therefore, the priority is to observe the client closely to provide appropriate support and intervention as needed.
3. A client receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer reports dry, peeling skin at the treatment site. What action should the nurse recommend?
- A. Apply lotion to the treatment area.
- B. Use mild soap and water to cleanse the area.
- C. Cover the area with a sterile dressing.
- D. Allow the skin to air dry after washing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a client with dry, peeling skin at a radiation therapy treatment site is to use mild soap and water to cleanse the area. This approach helps in preventing skin irritation and reduces the risk of infection. Applying lotion (Choice A) may further irritate the skin due to the chemicals present in the lotion. Covering the area with a sterile dressing (Choice C) is not necessary unless there is an open wound that needs protection. Allowing the skin to air dry after washing (Choice D) may lead to further dryness and peeling.
4. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?
- A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
- B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
- C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
- D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.
5. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Describes life without purpose
- C. Exhibits mood swings
- D. Complains of insomnia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access