Nursing Elites

1. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

2. An elderly client admitted after a fall begins to seize and loses consciousness. What action by the nurse is appropriate to do next?

• A. Stay with the client and observe for airway obstruction
• B. Collect pillows and pad the side rails of the bed
• C. Place an oral airway in the mouth and suction
• D. Announce a cardiac arrest and assist with intubation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to stay with the client and observe for airway obstruction. This is crucial as it ensures immediate intervention if there is any airway compromise. Choice B is incorrect as padding the side rails of the bed is not the priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because inserting an oral airway and suctioning should only be done if there is evidence of airway obstruction, and it is not the initial step. Choice D is incorrect as announcing a cardiac arrest and assisting with intubation is not the immediate action needed when a client is seizing and losing consciousness.

3. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via NG tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Mechanical soft diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.

4. A nurse is caring for four clients. The nurse should observe which of the following clients for a risk of vitamin B6 deficiency?

• A. A client who has cystic fibrosis
• B. A client who has chronic alcohol use disorder
• C. A client who takes phenytoin for a seizure disorder
• D. A client who is prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Chronic alcohol use disorder can lead to vitamin B6 deficiency due to impaired absorption and increased excretion of the vitamin. While clients with cystic fibrosis may be at risk for fat-soluble vitamin deficiencies, such as vitamins A, D, E, and K, they are not specifically at high risk for vitamin B6 deficiency. Clients taking phenytoin are at risk for folate deficiency, not vitamin B6. Clients prescribed rifampin for tuberculosis are at risk for vitamin D deficiency, not vitamin B6.

5. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most crucial point to reinforce to the patient after a vasectomy is the need for continued contraception until it is confirmed that the ejaculate is sperm-free. Choice A emphasizes this by highlighting the importance of using another form of contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm. This is essential to prevent unintended pregnancies. Choices B, C, and D do not address the key point of ensuring contraception until sperm absence is confirmed and are therefore not as important to reinforce in this scenario.

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