HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Exam
1. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.
2. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
- A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
- B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
- C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
- D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.
3. A nurse is assisting an adolescent client in the selection of complementary protein sources on the lunch menu. The client is a vegetarian who eats milk products but does not like beans. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly with enriched bread
- B. Baked potato with sour cream
- C. Bagel with cream cheese
- D. Fruit salad and carrot sticks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peanut butter and enriched bread provide complementary proteins, which are important for a vegetarian diet. Peanut butter is a good source of protein and when paired with enriched bread, it forms a complete protein source. Choice B, baked potato with sour cream, lacks complete protein. Choice C, bagel with cream cheese, also does not provide a complete protein source. Choice D, fruit salad and carrot sticks, do not contain sufficient protein to serve as a main protein source for a vegetarian diet.
4. When administering enteral feeding to a client via a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula
- A. Every four to six hours
- B. Continuously
- C. In a bolus
- D. Every hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering enteral feeding through a jejunostomy tube, the nurse should administer the formula continuously. Continuous feeding is essential for optimal nutrient absorption and to prevent complications. Administering the formula every four to six hours, in a bolus, or every hour may lead to inadequate nutrition, improper absorption, and an increased risk of complications such as aspiration or dumping syndrome, making these choices incorrect.
5. A client with a history of seizures is being monitored with an electroencephalogram (EEG). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to prepare the client for the test?
- A. Instruct the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the test
- B. Explain the procedure to the client and obtain consent
- C. Administer anticonvulsant medication as ordered
- D. Instruct the client to wash their hair the morning of the test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Instructing the client to avoid caffeine for 8 hours before the EEG is essential. This intervention helps ensure accurate test results by preventing stimulation of the nervous system, which could interfere with the interpretation of the brain's electrical activity. Explaining the procedure and obtaining consent are important steps but do not directly impact the test results. Administering anticonvulsant medication as ordered is a medical intervention and not a preparation step for the test. Instructing the client to wash their hair the morning of the test is not necessary for EEG preparation.
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