Nursing Elites

1. A client with osteoarthritis is prescribed acetaminophen. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with food to improve absorption.
• B. Avoid taking other pain medications to prevent liver damage.
• C. Take acetaminophen on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Monitor liver function tests regularly to detect any liver damage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Acetaminophen can cause liver damage if taken in excessive amounts or in combination with other medications containing acetaminophen. Clients should be advised to avoid other pain medications to prevent liver toxicity. Choice A is incorrect because acetaminophen is usually taken with or without food, not specifically on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because taking acetaminophen with food can help prevent stomach upset. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring liver function tests is important for long-term acetaminophen use, the most crucial teaching is to avoid other pain medications to prevent liver damage.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin level.
• C. Serum creatinine level.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.

3. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Urine output of 50 mL/hour.
• D. Absence of ketones in the urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with a traumatic brain injury who is receiving mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates that the client may be experiencing increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Client becomes increasingly lethargic
• B. Client's respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute
• C. Client responds to verbal stimuli
• D. Client's pupils are equal and reactive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased lethargy is a sign of worsening intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening in clients with brain injuries. As ICP rises, it can lead to decreased level of consciousness, such as lethargy or even coma. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of increased ICP. A normal respiratory rate, response to verbal stimuli, and equal reactive pupils do not specifically point towards increased intracranial pressure.

5. A client with peripheral artery disease reports pain while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?

• A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
• B. Instruct the client to take rest breaks during walking.
• C. Apply warm compresses to the legs to improve circulation.
• D. Massage the affected leg to relieve the pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with peripheral artery disease often experience claudication (leg pain during walking) due to decreased blood flow. Encouraging rest breaks during walking helps to manage pain and improve circulation. Rest breaks allow the muscles to recover from ischemia caused by inadequate blood supply. Increasing physical activity without breaks may worsen the symptoms. Applying warm compresses can potentially lead to burns or skin damage in individuals with compromised circulation. Massaging the affected leg is contraindicated in peripheral artery disease as it can further compromise blood flow.

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