Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

• A. Mild impairment
• B. Moderate impairment
• C. Severe impairment
• D. Normal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

2. A male client with schizophrenia is socially reclusive and pacing in the hallway. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
• B. Encourage the client to rest.
• C. Plan an activity that includes physical exercise.
• D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. In this situation, the client's behavior suggests agitation and restlessness, which could potentially escalate. Observation is crucial to monitor any changes in behavior, assess for signs of distress, and ensure the client's safety. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for managing the client's behavior. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) might not be effective if the client is highly agitated. Planning an activity that includes physical exercise (Choice C) could exacerbate the situation rather than address the current behavior. Therefore, the priority is to observe the client closely to provide appropriate support and intervention as needed.

3. On admission to the Emergency Department, a female client who was diagnosed with bipolar disorder 3 years ago reports that this morning, she took a handful of medications and left a suicide note for her family. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Client's current mood and affect
• B. When the client last took medications for bipolar disorder
• C. History of previous suicide attempts
• D. Details of the medications ingested

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Determining the specific medications ingested is the priority for guiding immediate treatment in the Emergency Department. Knowing when the client last took medications and her current mood are also important, but the ingested medications are the most urgent information needed. The client's current mood and affect are crucial for assessing her immediate state, but the priority is to identify the substances she ingested to provide appropriate interventions. While understanding the history of previous suicide attempts is relevant for assessing the client's risk, the immediate focus should be on the medications taken during this specific incident.

4. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

5. A client who recently received a prescription for ramelteon to treat sleep deprivation reports experiencing several side effects since taking the drug. Which side effect should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Somnambulism
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Vivid dreams
• D. Daytime sleepiness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Somnambulism' (sleepwalking). Somnambulism is a potentially dangerous side effect that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Sleepwalking can pose risks to the individual's safety and may indicate a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Dry mouth (choice B), vivid dreams (choice C), and daytime sleepiness (choice D) are common side effects of ramelteon and are generally not considered as urgent or serious as somnambulism. While these side effects can impact the client's quality of life, they are not typically associated with immediate safety concerns.

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