a client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident the client has a glasgow coma scale gcs score of 10 what does this sco
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.

2. A client with a venous leg ulcer is receiving compression therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Cool extremities and weak peripheral pulses indicate compromised circulation, possibly due to inadequate arterial blood supply. This finding requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as tissue damage or non-healing ulcers. Option A, decreased pain and increased redness, can be a sign of improving wound condition. Option B, increased serous drainage, may indicate a normal part of the healing process. Option D, pitting edema, is common in venous leg ulcers and may not require immediate intervention unless severe and accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

3. A client with pancreatitis reports severe pain after eating fatty foods. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pancreatitis, pain after consuming fatty foods is common due to increased pancreatic stimulation. Administering antispasmodics is the appropriate intervention as it can help reduce the pain by decreasing pancreatic enzyme secretion. Encouraging the client to eat small, low-fat meals (Choice A) is beneficial in managing pancreatitis symptoms but does not directly address the acute pain. Instructing the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides (Choice C) may lead to nutritional deficiencies and is not the best approach. Increasing high-protein foods intake (Choice D) is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the pancreas.

4. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

5. A client who recently had a hip replacement has a strong odor from the urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's oral temperature. In this scenario, the strong odor from urine and bloody drainage on the surgical dressing are concerning signs that suggest a possible infection. Fever is a common sign of infection, so measuring the client's temperature will help confirm if an infection is present. Obtaining a urine sample, inserting an indwelling urinary catheter, or removing the dressing and assessing the surgical site are not the first priority actions when infection is suspected. These actions may be necessary later but assessing the client's temperature is the initial step to evaluate for infection.

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