HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. A client with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged on isoniazid and rifampin. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Complete the full course of antibiotics.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if you experience tingling in your fingers.
- C. Use a disposable mask when in contact with others.
- D. Monitor liver function tests monthly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to use a disposable mask when in contact with others. TB is highly contagious, and wearing a mask can help prevent the spread of the disease to others. Choice A is important but not the priority as using a mask directly impacts public health. Choice B is related to a potential side effect of isoniazid, peripheral neuropathy, but immediate healthcare provider notification is not required. Choice D is relevant due to the potential hepatotoxicity of isoniazid and rifampin, but it is not the priority instruction in this scenario.
2. A client presents with a suspected infection and has a fever of 102°F. What is the nurse's immediate priority?
- A. Administer antipyretics as ordered
- B. Take a blood culture before administering antibiotics
- C. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
- D. Monitor vital signs every hour
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The immediate priority for a client with a suspected infection and fever is to take a blood culture before administering antibiotics. This step is crucial to identify the causative organism and ensure appropriate treatment. Administering antipyretics or encouraging fluid intake are important but should come after obtaining the blood culture to avoid interfering with test results. Monitoring vital signs, although essential, is not the immediate priority compared to identifying the infectious agent.
3. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instruction should the nurse provide the UAP who is working with the nurse?
- A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake
- B. Document the absence of reaction
- C. Notify the nurse if the client develops a fever
- D. Continue to measure the client's vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring vital signs throughout a transfusion is critical, as reactions can occur later in the process. The UAP should continue to check vital signs regularly to ensure that any delayed reaction is promptly detected. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice A) is not necessary at this point, as the focus should be on monitoring. Documenting the absence of a reaction (Choice B) is important but not as crucial as ongoing vital sign monitoring. Notifying the nurse if the client develops a fever (Choice C) is relevant but should not be the UAP's primary responsibility during the transfusion.
4. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?
- A. Elevated HDL cholesterol
- B. Low LDL cholesterol
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low triglyceride levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
- A. Carrots
- B. White bread
- C. Bananas
- D. Apples
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium and should be avoided in clients who are on a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease. Foods like apples and white bread are low in potassium and are safer choices. Carrots are also low in potassium and do not need to be avoided in this case.
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