HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is complaining of increased shortness of breath. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Check for kinks in the chest tube tubing.
- B. Assess the client's lung sounds.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
- D. Prepare for chest tube replacement.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a chest tube experiencing increased shortness of breath is to elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. This position promotes lung expansion, improves oxygenation, and can help relieve shortness of breath. Checking for kinks in the chest tube tubing would be important but not the first action in this situation. Assessing the client's lung sounds is also important but not the initial priority. Preparing for chest tube replacement is not indicated based solely on the client's complaint of increased shortness of breath.
2. An adult client with a broken femur reports muscle spasms. What action should the nurse implement while awaiting surgery?
- A. Check the client's most recent electrolyte levels.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of muscle relaxant.
- C. Reduce the weight on the traction device.
- D. Encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement while awaiting surgery for a client with muscle spasms due to a broken femur is to encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension. Dehydration can exacerbate muscle spasms, so increasing fluid intake can help alleviate them. Checking electrolyte levels may not directly address muscle spasms in this situation. Administering a muscle relaxant should be based on a healthcare provider's prescription, and traction weight adjustments should only be made by the provider overseeing the client's care.
3. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?
- A. Elevated HDL cholesterol
- B. Low LDL cholesterol
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Low triglyceride levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.
4. An older client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
- B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
- C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
- D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. In this scenario, the most critical information for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview is the recent compliance with prescribed medications. This is crucial to understand the client's baseline condition and management of chronic emphysema. Monitoring medication adherence can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors that may have led to the current acute symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are not as crucial in this situation. Sleep patterns, smoking history, and activity levels are important aspects of the client's overall health but do not take precedence over medication compliance when addressing acute symptoms in a client with chronic emphysema.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following lung surgery. What is the most important intervention to ensure the chest tube functions properly?
- A. Clamp the tube if there is excessive drainage
- B. Empty the drainage chamber every 2 hours
- C. Keep the drainage system below chest level
- D. Milk the tube to prevent clots from forming
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Keeping the chest tube drainage system below chest level ensures that gravity assists with drainage and prevents fluid or air from flowing back into the pleural space, which could compromise lung function. Clamping the tube if there is excessive drainage (choice A) is incorrect as it can lead to a buildup of pressure and compromise the drainage system. Emptying the drainage chamber every 2 hours (choice B) is important but not as crucial as maintaining the drainage system below chest level. Milking the tube to prevent clots from forming (choice D) is incorrect and could lead to complications such as tube occlusion or damage to the tissue.
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