Nursing Elites

1. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is complaining of increased shortness of breath. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Check for kinks in the chest tube tubing.
• B. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• D. Prepare for chest tube replacement.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a chest tube experiencing increased shortness of breath is to elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. This position promotes lung expansion, improves oxygenation, and can help relieve shortness of breath. Checking for kinks in the chest tube tubing would be important but not the first action in this situation. Assessing the client's lung sounds is also important but not the initial priority. Preparing for chest tube replacement is not indicated based solely on the client's complaint of increased shortness of breath.

2. A client with psoriasis is prescribed topical corticosteroids. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor for weight gain and skin thinning.
• B. Assess for increased sensitivity to sunlight.
• C. Monitor for hair loss and excessive bruising.
• D. Report any signs of increased redness or itching.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client with psoriasis is prescribed topical corticosteroids, the nurse should monitor for signs of increased redness or itching. This is because topical corticosteroids can cause skin thinning and increased redness if overused. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, sensitivity to sunlight, hair loss, and excessive bruising are not typically associated with the use of topical corticosteroids.

3. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing fatigue. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to take rest breaks during activities.
• C. Administer a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue.
• D. Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques. Energy conservation techniques are crucial in managing fatigue in multiple sclerosis. These techniques involve prioritizing activities, pacing oneself, and taking rest breaks to prevent overexertion, which can exacerbate fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase physical activity (choice A) may worsen fatigue if not done with proper energy conservation. Taking rest breaks during activities (choice B) is important but falls secondary to teaching energy conservation techniques. Administering a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue (choice C) should not be the priority as non-pharmacological interventions like energy conservation should be attempted first.

4. An older adult client with gastroenteritis has been taking the antidiarrheal diphenoxylate for the past 24 hours. What finding requires the nurse to take further action?

• A. Monitor the client’s fluid intake.
• B. Obtain a stool sample for testing.
• C. Administer a laxative to clear the infection.
• D. Assess skin turgor and provide fluids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing skin turgor is crucial as tented skin turgor indicates dehydration, which can be worsened by antidiarrheal medications like diphenoxylate. Providing fluids is essential to address dehydration in this client. Monitoring fluid intake (choice A) is important, but assessing skin turgor takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining a stool sample for testing (choice B) could be necessary for diagnostic purposes but is not the immediate priority. Administering a laxative (choice C) is contraindicated in this case as it can worsen the client's condition by further exacerbating fluid loss.

5. A client who has been prescribed multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope and has a blood pressure of 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse to hold the next scheduled antihypertensive dose?

• A. Increased urinary clearance of the medications has produced diuresis, lowering the blood pressure.
• B. The antagonistic interaction of the medications has reduced their effectiveness.
• C. The synergistic effect of the medications has resulted in drug toxicity, causing hypotension.
• D. The additive effect of the medications has lowered the blood pressure too much.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The additive effect of multiple antihypertensive medications can cause hypotension, leading to dangerously low blood pressure. In this scenario, the client experiencing syncope with a blood pressure of 70/40 indicates severe hypotension, likely due to the combined action of the antihypertensive medications. Holding the next scheduled dose is essential to prevent further lowering of blood pressure and potential complications. Choices A, B, and C provide inaccurate explanations and do not align with the client's presentation and the need to manage hypotension caused by the additive effect of the medications.

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