Nursing Elites

1. A client with bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. What should the nurse teach the client about lithium toxicity?

• A. Take the medication with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
• B. Report any symptoms of nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea.
• C. Monitor lithium levels regularly and maintain hydration.
• D. Avoid taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) while on lithium.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking lithium should avoid NSAIDs as they can increase lithium levels leading to toxicity. It is essential to monitor lithium levels regularly and maintain hydration to prevent toxicity. Reporting symptoms like nausea, vomiting, or diarrhea is important, but the key teaching point regarding lithium toxicity is to avoid NSAIDs.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

3. After a spider bite on the lower extremity, a client is admitted to treat an infection that is spreading up the leg. Which admission assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin
• B. Core body temperature of 100.5°F
• C. All of the above
• D. Elevated white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: All of the above findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and treatment. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin indicate regional lymphatic involvement, a core body temperature of 100.5°F suggests a mild fever response, and an elevated white blood cell count indicates an ongoing infection process. These findings collectively point towards the spread of infection and require immediate attention to prevent further complications.

4. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.

5. An adult client with a broken femur reports muscle spasms. What action should the nurse implement while awaiting surgery?

• A. Check the client's most recent electrolyte levels.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of muscle relaxant.
• C. Reduce the weight on the traction device.
• D. Encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement while awaiting surgery for a client with muscle spasms due to a broken femur is to encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension. Dehydration can exacerbate muscle spasms, so increasing fluid intake can help alleviate them. Checking electrolyte levels may not directly address muscle spasms in this situation. Administering a muscle relaxant should be based on a healthcare provider's prescription, and traction weight adjustments should only be made by the provider overseeing the client's care.

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