Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. What lab value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Hemoglobin level.
• C. Serum creatinine level.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the therapy and ensure the client is not developing anemia. Increased hemoglobin levels indicate successful treatment, whereas very high levels may suggest erythropoietin is overcorrecting the anemia. Monitoring the white blood cell count is not directly related to erythropoietin therapy for anemia. Serum creatinine level is used to assess kidney function rather than the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Platelet count is not typically affected by erythropoietin therapy and is not a key indicator of its effectiveness.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The client is prescribed intravenous antibiotics and oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Increased white blood cell count
• B. Crackles heard on lung auscultation
• C. Productive cough with green sputum
• D. Decreased respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths per minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that the client's breathing is becoming more stable, which suggests an improvement in their condition. Respiratory rate is a critical indicator of respiratory status and oxygenation. Increased white blood cell count (choice A) suggests ongoing infection, crackles on lung auscultation (choice B) indicate fluid in the lungs, and productive cough with green sputum (choice C) may indicate persistent infection or airway inflammation, which do not necessarily reflect improvement in pneumonia.

4. A pregnant client complains of heartburn. What instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Eat spicy food to help digestion.
• B. Eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach.
• C. Drink carbonated beverages to ease digestion.
• D. Avoid drinking fluids after meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a pregnant client experiencing heartburn is to eat small meals throughout the day to avoid a full stomach. This helps prevent the stomach from becoming overly full, reducing the likelihood of heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Eating spicy food can exacerbate heartburn, carbonated beverages may trigger heartburn due to gas, and avoiding fluids after meals does not directly address the issue of heartburn.

5. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
• B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

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