HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
- B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
- C. Recent history of smoking.
- D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.
2. What is the primary purpose of the logrolling technique for turning?
- A. To decrease the risk of back injury by working together.
- B. To maintain straight spinal alignment.
- C. To increase client safety by using two or three people.
- D. To reduce the likelihood of skin damage by turning instead of pulling.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: To maintain straight spinal alignment. Logrolling is a technique used to carefully turn a client while keeping the spine in a straight line, especially important for those with spinal injuries or after back surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose is not specifically to decrease the risk of back injury but to ensure safe turning. Choice C is incorrect as the main aim is not to increase client safety by using multiple people but to protect the spine. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of logrolling is not to prevent skin damage but to safeguard the spine during turning.
3. A client is being prepared for surgery and has been placed on NPO status. Which of the following is the nurse's priority assessment?
- A. Assess the client's understanding of the procedure
- B. Monitor the client's compliance with NPO status
- C. Check the client's vital signs
- D. Ensure the client's consent form is signed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring the client's compliance with NPO status is the priority assessment. Ensuring the client remains NPO (nothing by mouth) is crucial to reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery. Assessing the client's understanding of the procedure is important but not the priority at this moment. Checking vital signs is also essential but ensuring NPO status takes precedence for patient safety. Ensuring the client's consent form is signed is necessary but not the priority assessment compared to maintaining NPO status.
4. A client is diagnosed with Meniere's disease. Which problem should the nurse identify as most important in the plan of care?
- A. Social isolation related to hearing loss
- B. Risk for injury related to vertigo
- C. Impaired verbal communication
- D. Impaired hearing related to ear disease
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Vertigo is the primary symptom of Meniere's disease and can lead to falls and other injuries. Ensuring safety and addressing the risk of injury is the nurse's top priority. While social isolation and impaired hearing are significant concerns associated with Meniere's disease, the immediate danger of falls due to vertigo takes precedence in the plan of care. Impaired verbal communication, although important, is not as urgent as preventing injuries caused by vertigo.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
- B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
- C. Barrel chest appearance
- D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.
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