Nursing Elites

1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
• C. Provide mouth care to keep the client comfortable.
• D. Elevate the client's head of the bed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator as prescribed.
• B. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
• C. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• D. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with COPD experiencing increased shortness of breath and fatigue is to check the client's oxygen saturation. This assessment helps the nurse evaluate the client's respiratory status promptly. Administering a bronchodilator (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the oxygen saturation. Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position (Choice C) can help improve breathing but should not precede oxygen saturation assessment. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) may be needed based on the oxygen saturation results, but assessing it first is crucial.

3. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
• B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

4. A 30-year-old male client reports difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery. What intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?

• A. Suggest taking a mild sedative before bed.
• B. Encourage physical activity before bedtime.
• C. Advise listening to calming music before bed.
• D. Recommend reading a book before bed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to suggest to a 30-year-old male client experiencing difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery is to recommend taking a mild sedative before bed. A mild sedative can help manage anxiety and improve sleep in such situations. Encouraging physical activity before bedtime, advising to listen to calming music, or recommending reading a book may not directly address the client's anxiety and may not be as effective in promoting sleep in this scenario.

5. A client with peripheral artery disease reports leg cramps while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?

• A. Encourage the client to rest immediately when cramping occurs.
• B. Recommend that the client increase their intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Advise the client to take a short break, then continue walking.
• D. Recommend that the client avoid walking altogether to prevent cramps.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For clients with peripheral artery disease, advising the client to take a short break when leg cramps occur and then continue walking is the appropriate intervention. This approach, known as interval walking, helps manage pain from intermittent claudication and improves circulation over time. Choice A is incorrect because immediate rest may not be necessary, and encouraging the client to resume walking after a short break is more beneficial. Choice B is incorrect since increasing potassium-rich foods may not directly address the underlying issue of peripheral artery disease causing cramps. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding walking altogether can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms over time.

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