HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
- C. Provide mouth care to keep the client comfortable.
- D. Elevate the client's head of the bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.
2. The nurse is teaching a client about postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty. What instruction should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Begin ambulation as soon as possible.
- B. Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.
- C. Avoid putting weight on the affected leg.
- D. Apply ice packs to reduce pain and swelling.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use continuous passive motion therapy to maintain joint mobility.' Continuous passive motion therapy is crucial in postoperative care following a total knee arthroplasty as it helps prevent stiffness and maintain joint mobility. Ambulation is important but should be guided and not immediate. Avoiding putting weight on the affected leg is also essential initially to prevent complications. Applying ice packs can help reduce pain and swelling, but it is not the priority instruction for maintaining joint mobility and preventing stiffness.
3. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Thiamine supplementation
- B. Folic acid replacement
- C. Intravenous glucose
- D. Magnesium sulfate administration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.
4. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?
- A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
- B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
- C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
- D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.
5. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.
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