a client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation which assessment should the nurse prioritize
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone

1. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client is scheduled for a spiral CT scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An allergy to shellfish often indicates an allergy to iodine, which is used in contrast dyes for CT scans. This poses a significant risk of an allergic reaction during the procedure. The nurse must ensure appropriate precautions or alternative imaging are considered. Choices B, C, and D are not directly contraindicated for a CT scan with contrast. Smoking history, metformin use, and controlled hypertension do not typically impact the safety or feasibility of the procedure.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. An oxygen saturation of 89% indicates hypoxemia, which is below the normal range (usually 95-100%). This finding requires immediate intervention as it signifies inadequate oxygenation. Options A, C, and D are within normal limits and do not indicate an urgent need for intervention. Option A indicates a good oxygen saturation level, option C denotes a normal respiratory rate, and option D suggests a normal heart rate. Therefore, these options do not require immediate intervention compared to the critically low oxygen saturation level of 89% in option B.

4. A client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax is complaining of increased shortness of breath. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a chest tube experiencing increased shortness of breath is to elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees. This position promotes lung expansion, improves oxygenation, and can help relieve shortness of breath. Checking for kinks in the chest tube tubing would be important but not the first action in this situation. Assessing the client's lung sounds is also important but not the initial priority. Preparing for chest tube replacement is not indicated based solely on the client's complaint of increased shortness of breath.

5. A young adult was hit in the temporal area with a baseball bat and is being monitored for signs of a closed head injury. Which finding indicates a developing epidural hematoma?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after a temporal injury is a classic sign of epidural hematoma, which is a neurosurgical emergency. This finding occurs due to the rapid expansion of the hematoma, causing compression of the brain. Nausea and vomiting (choice A) are more commonly associated with other types of head injuries, such as concussion. Severe headache and blurred vision (choice C) are symptoms seen in various head injuries but are not specific to epidural hematomas. Loss of motor function on the affected side (choice D) is more indicative of a different type of head injury, such as a contusion or intracerebral hematoma.

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