Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Percussion of the abdomen.
• B. Blood glucose level.
• C. Serum electrolytes.
• D. Level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.

2. When teaching a group of mothers of young children about emergency care for poisoning, which of the following statements should be included?

• A. Induce vomiting immediately after the poison ingestion
• B. Call the local Poison Control Center after inducing vomiting
• C. Call the Poison Control Center prior to any interventions
• D. Take the child to the emergency department before calling the Poison Control Center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching about emergency care for poisoning is to call the Poison Control Center prior to any interventions. This is important because the Poison Control Center can provide guidance on the appropriate steps to take based on the type of poisoning, the amount ingested, and the age of the child. Inducing vomiting without professional advice can sometimes do more harm than good. Choice A is incorrect because inducing vomiting immediately is not recommended without consulting with professionals. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests calling the Poison Control Center after inducing vomiting, which is not the recommended sequence. Choice D is incorrect because it is advisable to contact the Poison Control Center first before taking the child to the emergency department.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of septic shock. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is deteriorating?

• A. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• B. Temperature of 99.5°F (37.5°C)
• C. Blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg
• D. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg indicates hypotension, which is a sign of worsening septic shock. Hypotension can lead to organ failure and requires immediate intervention. Elevated heart rate (choice A), mild fever (choice B), and slightly increased respiratory rate (choice D) are common in septic shock and may not necessarily indicate a deteriorating condition as much as hypotension does.

4. A client with hyperthyroidism is experiencing palpitations. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to rest and limit activity.
• B. Administer a beta-blocker to reduce heart rate.
• C. Encourage the client to drink cool fluids.
• D. Provide the client with a cool environment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with hyperthyroidism experiencing palpitations, administering a beta-blocker is the appropriate intervention. Beta-blockers help reduce heart rate and control symptoms in hyperthyroidism. Encouraging rest (Choice A) may be helpful but does not directly address the palpitations. Drinking cool fluids (Choice C) and providing a cool environment (Choice D) are more focused on temperature regulation and comfort, which are not the primary interventions for palpitations in hyperthyroidism.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Monitor stools for blood and review PTT results.
• D. Continue the heparin and prepare to administer Vitamin K.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

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