a client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose what is the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring the level of consciousness helps assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy in improving the client's condition. Monitoring ammonia levels (choice A) is important, but assessing the client's response to therapy through their level of consciousness is more crucial. Blood glucose levels (choice B) and potassium levels (choice C) are not directly related to lactulose therapy for cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client is admitted with a suspected bowel obstruction. What assessment finding should the nurse report immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A distended abdomen with a firm, rigid feel is a concerning sign that suggests a complication such as bowel perforation, which requires immediate intervention. Absent bowel sounds can be expected in bowel obstructions but are not as urgent as a rigid abdomen. Frequent episodes of nausea and vomiting are common with bowel obstructions but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds and abdominal cramping are more indicative of bowel obstruction rather than a complication requiring immediate attention.

3. A client with Alzheimer's disease is exhibiting signs of agitation and aggression. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to redirect the client to a quiet activity. This intervention helps reduce agitation and aggression in clients with Alzheimer's disease by providing a distraction and promoting a calming environment. Reassuring the client and providing emotional support (Choice A) can be beneficial but is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice C) should not be the first intervention due to the risk of adverse effects and should only be considered if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective. Applying restraints (Choice D) should be avoided unless absolutely necessary for the client's safety as it can lead to further distress and is not the initial priority intervention.

4. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by interfering with vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Therefore, consuming foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's effectiveness. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because: A) Warfarin is not affected by foods high in potassium; C) Warfarin should be taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects; D) There is no specific requirement for taking warfarin at bedtime for best results.

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