HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A 17-year-old adolescent reports flu-like symptoms and is brought to the emergency room. What intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Assess the client's temperature.
- B. Place a mask on the client.
- C. Obtain a chest X-ray per protocol.
- D. Determine the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to place a mask on the client. This intervention is crucial in preventing the spread of infections like the flu, especially in a healthcare setting where the risk of transmission is high. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority in this situation. Obtaining a chest X-ray (Choice C) and determining the client's blood pressure (Choice D) are not the immediate interventions needed for a 17-year-old reporting flu-like symptoms.
2. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?
- A. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
- B. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
- C. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 10 degrees
- D. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position maximizes ventilation and promotes better perfusion to the unaffected lung. Placing the client in this position helps to optimize oxygenation and reduce pressure on the affected lung. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lying on the left side with the head elevated is essential to facilitate better lung expansion and gas exchange in the unaffected lung, while lying on the right side could further compromise the affected lung by increasing pressure on it.
3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.
4. Which of these findings would the nurse more closely associate with anemia in a 10-month-old infant?
- A. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
- B. Pale mucosa of the eyelids and lips
- C. Hypoactivity
- D. A heart rate between 140 to 160
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Pale mucous membranes, such as those of the eyelids and lips, are a classic sign of anemia in infants. Anemia leads to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity, resulting in tissue hypoxia, which can manifest as pale mucosa. Choice A, a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL, is within the normal range for a 10-month-old infant and would not necessarily indicate anemia. Choice C, hypoactivity, is a non-specific finding and can be present in various conditions, not specifically anemia. Choice D, a heart rate between 140 to 160, is within the normal range for an infant and is not a specific finding associated with anemia.
5. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.
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