Nursing Elites

1. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotics and oxygen therapy. What assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Productive cough with yellow sputum.
• B. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
• D. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to tissue hypoxia and further complications. A productive cough with yellow sputum is common in pneumonia but may not require immediate intervention unless it worsens or is associated with other concerning symptoms. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute is within the normal range, indicating adequate ventilation. A heart rate of 90 beats per minute is also within a normal range and may not require immediate intervention unless it is accompanied by other abnormal findings.

2. After placing a stethoscope to auscultate S1 and S2 heart sounds, what should the nurse do to check for an S3 heart sound?

• A. Switch to the diaphragm of the stethoscope to hear any abnormal sounds
• B. Listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the same location
• C. Listen at a different location over the aortic area
• D. Switch to the apical area and reassess for S3 sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess for an S3 heart sound, the nurse should listen with the bell of the stethoscope. An S3 heart sound is often low-pitched and best heard with the bell. Choice A is incorrect because switching to the diaphragm is not ideal for detecting low-pitched sounds like an S3. Choice C is incorrect as the S3 heart sound is best heard over the apex of the heart, not the aortic area. Choice D is incorrect because moving to the apical area is appropriate, but the nurse should specifically use the bell of the stethoscope to listen for S3 sounds.

3. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
• D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.

4. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Auscultate lung sounds.
• D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.

5. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Consult with the charge nurse regarding morphine prescription.
• B. Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold morphine until dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the prescription with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.

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