Nursing Elites

1. While assessing a client who is admitted with heart failure and pulmonary edema, the nurse identifies dependent peripheral edema, an irregular heart rate, and a persistent cough that produces pink blood-tinged sputum. After initiating continuous telemetry and positioning the client, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer prescribed diuretics
• B. Prepare for intubation
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• D. Obtain sputum sample

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's cough producing pink, frothy sputum is indicative of pulmonary edema, which needs immediate treatment. Obtaining a sputum sample helps identify any infection that may be contributing to the pulmonary issues. Administering diuretics is essential in managing pulmonary edema but obtaining a sputum sample should take priority. Intubation may be necessary in severe cases but is not the initial intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider is important, but immediate action to diagnose and treat the condition is crucial.

2. A client presents to the clinic with concerns about her left breast. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report?

• A. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses.
• B. A slight asymmetry of the breasts.
• C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin.
• D. Bloody discharge from the nipple.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin is concerning for malignancy, such as breast cancer, and should be reported immediately for further evaluation. This finding is more suspicious compared to multiple firm, round, freely movable masses (choice A), which could be benign breast lumps. A slight asymmetry of the breasts (choice B) is a common finding and not as alarming as a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin. Bloody discharge from the nipple (choice D) can be suggestive of other conditions like intraductal papilloma but is not as urgent as the finding described in choice C.

3. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.

4. The nurse is preparing an older adult for discharge following cataract extraction. What is the most important instruction?

• A. Avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects.
• B. Limit exposure to sunlight for the first 2 weeks.
• C. Use direct lighting when reading for 6 weeks.
• D. Irrigate the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important instruction for a patient following cataract extraction is to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure and potentially lead to complications such as bleeding or dislocation of the intraocular lens. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate post-operative period. Limiting sunlight exposure and using direct lighting when reading are important but not as crucial as avoiding activities that can increase intraocular pressure. Irrigating the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment is not a standard post-cataract surgery instruction.

5. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?

• A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
• B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
• C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
• D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.

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