Nursing Elites

1. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
• B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
• D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.

2. A client is experiencing shortness of breath and wheezing. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer bronchodilator medication
• B. Check the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing
• D. Elevate the head of the bed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention to open the airways and relieve wheezing and shortness of breath. Bronchodilators work quickly to dilate the airways, making it easier for the client to breathe. Checking oxygen saturation is important but can be done after initiating bronchodilator therapy. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing and elevating the head of the bed can help improve breathing patterns but should follow the administration of the bronchodilator.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is experiencing chest pain. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
• B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
• C. Call the healthcare provider
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. Sublingual nitroglycerin is the first-line treatment for chest pain related to coronary artery disease. It helps dilate the coronary arteries and improve blood flow to the heart, providing immediate relief from ischemia. Administering nitroglycerin promptly can help alleviate the chest pain and prevent further complications. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important but should not delay the administration of nitroglycerin. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice C) can be done after initiating immediate treatment. Checking the client's oxygen saturation (Choice D) is relevant but not the first action to take in this scenario.

4. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide. What assessment finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. Increased urine output and weight loss.
• B. Increased heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.
• D. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Decreased edema and improved peripheral pulses.' In a client with heart failure, furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload. Therefore, a decrease in edema (swelling due to fluid retention) and improved peripheral pulses (indicating better circulation) are signs that the medication is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increased urine output and weight loss (Choice A) may indicate the diuretic effect of furosemide but do not specifically reflect its effectiveness in heart failure. Increased heart rate and blood pressure (Choice B) are not desired effects of furosemide and may suggest adverse reactions. Decreased shortness of breath and clear lung sounds (Choice D) are related to improved respiratory status and may not directly reflect the effectiveness of furosemide in addressing fluid overload.

5. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Consult with the charge nurse regarding morphine prescription.
• B. Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed.
• C. Withhold morphine until dyspnea resolves.
• D. Review the need for the prescription with the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.

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