HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?
- A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
- B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
- C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
- D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.
2. A client with antisocial personality disorder repeatedly requests a specific nurse be assigned to him and is belligerent when another nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests
- B. Assign the nurse requested by the client to avoid further conflict
- C. Tell the client that he can request a different nurse if unhappy
- D. Explain the situation calmly and reinforce the rules regarding nurse assignments
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement is to remind the client that nurse assignments are not based on patient requests. In this situation, it is essential to establish boundaries and communicate that nurse assignments are made based on clinical decisions, not patient preferences. Option B is incorrect because it compromises the principle of fairness in nurse assignments. Option C is incorrect as it encourages the client's behavior by allowing him to request a different nurse based on personal preferences. Option D is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of patient manipulation and reinforces inappropriate behavior.
3. The healthcare provider is performing a physical assessment on a client who just had an endotracheal tube inserted. Which finding would call for immediate action by the healthcare provider?
- A. Breath sounds are audible bilaterally
- B. Mist is visible in the T-piece
- C. Pulse oximetry of 88
- D. Client is unable to verbalize
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88 indicates hypoxia, which is a serious condition requiring immediate intervention. Adequate oxygenation is crucial for the client's well-being. Choices A and B are normal findings after endotracheal intubation. Hearing bilateral breath sounds and seeing mist in the T-piece indicate proper functioning of the endotracheal tube. While choice D may indicate an issue with speaking due to the endotracheal tube, it is not as critical as the hypoxia indicated by the low pulse oximetry reading.
4. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
- B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
- C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.
5. The healthcare worker is wearing PPE while caring for a client. When exiting the room, which PPE should be removed first?
- A. Gloves
- B. Face shield
- C. Mask
- D. Gown
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Gloves should be removed first as they are most likely to be contaminated. This is followed by the gown, then face shield, and mask. Correct removal sequence helps prevent contamination. Removing gloves first reduces the risk of transferring pathogens from the gloves to other PPE or surfaces. Face shield and mask should be removed last as they protect mucous membranes from exposure to contaminants. Removing PPE in the correct sequence is crucial in preventing the spread of infections.
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