Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

2. A client is receiving lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. To evaluate the therapeutic response, which assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Percussion of the abdomen.
• B. Blood glucose level.
• C. Serum electrolytes.
• D. Level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, which can affect brain function. Therefore, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic response. Changes in consciousness can indicate the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are important assessments in various conditions, they are not specifically related to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.

3. A mother reports that she has been applying triple antibiotic ointment for her son's athlete's foot for two days with no improvement. What should the nurse instruct?

• A. Continue using the ointment and keep the area clean.
• B. Stop using the ointment and encourage the feet to be dried completely.
• C. Apply a different antifungal medication instead.
• D. Reapply the ointment twice a day for a longer period.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Antibiotic ointment is ineffective against athlete's foot, which is a fungal infection. The nurse should instruct the mother to stop using the ointment and ensure the feet are dried properly, as moisture exacerbates fungal infections. Applying a different antifungal medication is a valid option, but addressing the moisture issue by drying the feet completely is the immediate priority. Continuing to use the antibiotic ointment or reapplying it for a longer period will not treat the fungal infection effectively.

4. At 42-weeks gestation, a client refuses induction and desires a natural delivery. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support her birth plan.
• B. Explain the indications for induction in post-term pregnancy.
• C. Discuss the differences between labor with oxytocin and natural labor.
• D. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the issue with the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss alternative ways to support her birth plan. It is crucial to respect the client's autonomy and desires while ensuring their safety and well-being. Choice B is incorrect because while educating the client about the indications for induction is important, it is not the most immediate action to take in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on comparing labor types rather than supporting the client's birth plan. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should first engage with the client directly before involving the healthcare provider.

5. When a pediatric client is taking the beta-adrenergic blocking agent propranolol, what signs of overdose should the nurse instruct the parents to report?

• A. Seizures
• B. Increased respiratory rate
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Irritability

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a pediatric client is taking propranolol, the nurse should instruct the parents to report signs of overdose, including bradycardia. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to dangerously slow heart rate as a sign of overdose. While increased respiratory rate, seizures, and irritability may occur in some cases, bradycardia is the most critical symptom indicating an overdose of this medication.

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