Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's oxygenation is improving?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 94%
• B. Heart rate increases from 80 to 90 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 20 breaths per minute
• D. Client reports increased energy levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 94% indicates adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most objective way to assess the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the client's oxygenation status. An increase in heart rate or respiratory rate may indicate increased work of breathing or stress on the body. The client reporting increased energy levels is subjective and may not directly correlate with improved oxygenation.

2. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?

• A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
• B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
• C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
• D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing difficulty breathing. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer.
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Reposition the client to a side-lying position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with COPD experiencing difficulty breathing, increasing the client's oxygen flow rate is the priority intervention. This action helps to improve oxygenation and relieve shortness of breath. While bronchodilators and other medications may be necessary, providing immediate oxygen support is crucial. Elevating the head of the bed and repositioning the client can assist with breathing comfort but do not address the immediate need for improved oxygenation in COPD exacerbation.

4. A client who had a vasectomy is in the post-recovery unit at an outpatient clinic. Which of these points is most important to be reinforced by the nurse?

• A. Until the healthcare provider has determined that your ejaculate doesn't contain sperm, continue to use another form of contraception.
• B. This procedure doesn't impede the production of male hormones or the production of sperm in the testicles. The sperm can no longer enter your semen, and no sperm are in your ejaculate.
• C. After your vasectomy, strenuous activity needs to be avoided for at least 48 hours. If your work doesn't involve hard physical labor, you can return to your job as soon as you feel up to it. The stitches generally dissolve in seven to ten days.
• D. The healthcare provider at this clinic recommends rest, ice, an athletic supporter, or over-the-counter pain medication to relieve any discomfort.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important point to reinforce after a vasectomy is to continue using contraception until the healthcare provider confirms the absence of sperm in the ejaculate. Choice A is correct because it emphasizes the necessity of another form of contraception until sperm absence is confirmed. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on how a vasectomy works anatomically rather than the need for ongoing contraception. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses post-vasectomy care but does not address the need for continued contraception. Choice D is also incorrect as it refers to general post-procedure recommendations but does not highlight the crucial aspect of using contraception until sperm absence is confirmed.

5. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?

• A. Decreased liver enzymes.
• B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
• C. High bilirubin levels.
• D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.

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