Nursing Elites

1. A client in heart failure (HF) presents with weakness and poor urine output. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Heart rate of 122 bpm and respiratory rate of 28.
• B. Yellow sputum expectorated.
• C. Temperature of 100.5°F (38.1°C).
• D. Shortness of breath on exertion.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated temperature may indicate infection and should be treated immediately in a client with heart failure.

2. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Increase the dosage of the medication.
• B. Auscultate bowel sounds.
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
• D. Check the client's respiratory rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Encourage oral hydration
• B. Monitor for signs of dehydration
• C. Restrict fluid intake
• D. Administer IV fluids as prescribed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In SIADH, there is excessive ADH secretion leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The most crucial intervention is to restrict fluid intake to prevent further fluid overload and worsening of hyponatremia. Encouraging oral hydration (choice A) would exacerbate the condition by adding more fluids. Monitoring for signs of dehydration (choice B) is not appropriate as the client is at risk of fluid overload. Administering IV fluids (choice D) would worsen the hyponatremia and should be avoided.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to eat foods rich in potassium
• B. Administer a potassium-sparing diuretic
• C. Administer a potassium-binding medication
• D. Hold all medications containing potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is dangerous and requires immediate treatment. Administering a potassium-binding medication will help lower potassium levels and prevent life-threatening complications.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.

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