Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

2. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

3. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right AKA (above-the-knee amputation) for a severe traumatic injury. He is in the commons room and anxiously calls out to the nurse, stating that his 'right foot is aching.' The nurse offers reassurance and support. Which additional intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client distraction techniques
• B. Provide a soft blanket to ease discomfort
• C. Administer prescribed pain medication
• D. Encourage discussion of feelings about the loss of his limb

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's report of pain in a missing limb is consistent with phantom limb pain, which can be distressing. Encouraging the client to discuss his feelings helps address the emotional and psychological aspects of the amputation and supports his overall recovery. Teaching distraction techniques (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying emotional distress. Providing a soft blanket (choice B) is not the priority when dealing with phantom limb pain. Administering pain medication (choice C) may not effectively manage phantom limb pain as it is more related to central nervous system changes rather than tissue damage.

4. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
• B. Elevate the head of the bed.
• C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
• D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

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