Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing care for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Increase the TPN infusion rate if the client is hungry
• B. Administer TPN via a peripheral IV line
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly
• D. Ensure the TPN solution is refrigerated at all times

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the client's plan of care is to monitor blood glucose levels regularly. Clients receiving TPN are at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content of the solution. Regular monitoring of blood glucose levels is essential to ensure appropriate management of blood sugar. Choice A is incorrect because increasing the TPN infusion rate based on hunger is not a valid parameter for adjusting TPN. Choice B is incorrect because TPN should be administered through a central line, not a peripheral IV line, to prevent complications. Choice D is incorrect because TPN solutions should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated.

2. A client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Evaluate the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft.
• B. Instruct the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet.
• C. Recommend support stockings for venous return.
• D. Monitor the client's serum albumin levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) who has lost weight and exhibits increasing edema, the nurse should prioritize evaluating the patency of the arteriovenous (AV) graft. This assessment is crucial to determine if hemodialysis can be resumed, addressing the client's presenting issues effectively. Instructing the client to continue a fluid-restricted diet (choice B) may not address the underlying issue related to the CAPD. Recommending support stockings for venous return (choice C) is not directly relevant to the situation described. Monitoring the client's serum albumin levels (choice D) may be important but does not directly address the immediate concern of weight loss and increasing edema in a CAPD client.

3. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

4. A client with Crohn's disease reports diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods.
• B. Administer antidiarrheal medication as prescribed.
• C. Encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity.
• D. Restrict fluid intake and monitor electrolytes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Crohn's disease reporting diarrhea is to encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity. A high-fiber diet helps manage diarrhea in Crohn's disease by adding bulk to the stool and promoting more regular bowel movements. Instructing the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it can further exacerbate diarrhea. Administering antidiarrheal medication (Choice B) without addressing the underlying cause may not be the best initial approach. Encouraging a high-fiber diet and physical activity (Choice C) is beneficial for managing symptoms. Restricting fluid intake and monitoring electrolytes (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration, which is a concern in clients with diarrhea.

5. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?

• A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
• B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
• C. Observe the skin for bruising.
• D. Measure the body temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.

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