Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea. What should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• B. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
• C. Provide the client with crackers and water.
• D. Encourage the client to eat a bland diet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer an antiemetic as prescribed. When a client receiving chemotherapy reports severe nausea, the priority action is to administer an antiemetic medication as prescribed. Antiemetics help alleviate nausea and prevent complications associated with chemotherapy, such as dehydration and malnutrition. Options B, C, and D focus on dietary interventions which can be helpful but addressing the severe nausea with antiemetic medication takes precedence to provide immediate relief and ensure the client's comfort and well-being.

2. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What assessment finding suggests the medication dosage is too high?

• A. Increased sensitivity to cold.
• B. Increased heart rate and palpitations.
• C. Improved energy levels.
• D. Improved tolerance to heat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate and palpitations. When a client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine, these symptoms may indicate that the dosage is too high, causing the client to develop hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased sensitivity to cold is a symptom of hypothyroidism, improved energy levels are an expected outcome of levothyroxine therapy for hypothyroidism, and improved tolerance to heat is not a common sign of levothyroxine overdose.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach.
• B. Report any signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Monitor for changes in blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed warfarin is to report any signs of bleeding, such as unusual bruising, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding, so it is crucial for the client to promptly report any bleeding-related symptoms for evaluation by a healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K, such as spinach, is more relevant for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent vitamin K intake. Warfarin should be taken with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for changes in blood pressure is not directly related to warfarin therapy; instead, the focus should be on monitoring for signs of bleeding.

4. A client with a seizure disorder is prescribed phenytoin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take phenytoin with antacids to reduce stomach upset.
• B. Maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures.
• C. Monitor for excessive drowsiness and dizziness.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to reduce seizure risk.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed phenytoin is to maintain a consistent dosing schedule to prevent seizures. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, and missing doses can increase the risk of seizures. Option A is incorrect because antacids can interact with phenytoin and reduce its absorption. Option C is important but not the most critical teaching as compared to maintaining a consistent dosing schedule. Option D is incorrect because the timing of phenytoin administration should be consistent rather than specifically at bedtime.

5. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is receiving an insulin infusion. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?

• A. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L.
• B. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL.
• C. Urine output of 50 mL/hour.
• D. Absence of ketones in the urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Absence of ketones in the urine. In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) receiving an insulin infusion, the absence of ketones in the urine indicates that ketoacidosis is resolving. This is a crucial finding as it shows that the insulin therapy is effectively addressing the metabolic imbalance causing DKA. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect: A potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L is within normal range but does not directly reflect the resolution of DKA; a blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL, while improved, is still high and does not specifically indicate the resolution of ketoacidosis; urine output of 50 mL/hour is within normal limits but does not directly point to the resolution of DKA.

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