Nursing Elites

1. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-potassium diet. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?

• A. Carrots
• B. White bread
• C. Bananas
• D. Apples

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bananas. Bananas are high in potassium and should be avoided in clients who are on a low-potassium diet due to chronic kidney disease. Foods like apples and white bread are low in potassium and are safer choices. Carrots are also low in potassium and do not need to be avoided in this case.

3. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What is the best action for the nurse to take?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing around the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine.
• C. Assess for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of swelling and crackling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes crepitus around a chest tube site, it could indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a potentially serious condition where air gets trapped under the skin. Measuring the area of swelling and crackling is important as it helps monitor the progression of subcutaneous emphysema. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might not address the underlying cause and could potentially worsen the condition. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for crepitus at a chest tube site. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is important but not the immediate priority when crepitus is observed.

4. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
• B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
• C. Recent history of smoking.
• D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.

5. The nurse is taking the blood pressure measurement of a client with Parkinson's disease. Which information in the client's admission assessment is relevant to the nurse's plan for taking the blood pressure reading?

• A. Frequent syncope
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Gait instability
• D. Fine motor tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Frequent syncope.' Orthostatic hypotension, common in Parkinson's disease, often causes syncope (fainting) when blood pressure drops upon standing. This information is critical for planning safe blood pressure measurements, ensuring readings are taken in both lying and standing positions to assess for sudden drops in pressure. Muscle rigidity, tremors, or gait instability are important symptoms in Parkinson's disease but are not directly related to blood pressure assessment.

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