HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.
2. A client reports dizziness when standing up quickly. What advice should the nurse give?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more fluids.
- B. Change positions slowly to prevent dizziness.
- C. Report the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately.
- D. Limit physical activity to avoid triggering dizziness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct advice for a client experiencing dizziness when standing up quickly is to change positions slowly to prevent dizziness. This symptom is suggestive of postural hypotension, where a sudden change in position can lead to a drop in blood pressure, causing dizziness. Encouraging the client to drink more fluids (Choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to the prevention of dizziness in this case. Reporting the symptom to the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is important if the dizziness is persistent or severe, but the immediate action to prevent it is to change positions slowly. Limiting physical activity (Choice D) may not necessarily address the underlying cause of dizziness in this context.
3. A male client reports that he took tadalafil 10 mg two hours ago and now feels flushed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Instruct the client to increase oral fluid intake.
- B. Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect.
- C. Advise the client to take nitroglycerin as a precaution.
- D. Ask the client to come to the emergency room.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reassure the client that flushing is a common side effect. Tadalafil, a medication used for erectile dysfunction, can cause flushing as a common side effect. In this situation, the nurse should provide reassurance to the client that the flushing is expected and not necessarily a cause for concern. Increasing oral fluid intake (choice A) may be beneficial for other conditions but is not directly related to tadalafil-induced flushing. Advising the client to take nitroglycerin (choice C) is incorrect, as nitroglycerin is not indicated for flushing. Asking the client to come to the emergency room (choice D) is unnecessary at this point since flushing is a known side effect and does not typically require urgent medical attention.
4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time (PT)
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Hemoglobin level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.
5. At 42-weeks gestation, a client refuses induction and desires a natural delivery. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Discuss alternative ways to support her birth plan.
- B. Explain the indications for induction in post-term pregnancy.
- C. Discuss the differences between labor with oxytocin and natural labor.
- D. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the issue with the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss alternative ways to support her birth plan. It is crucial to respect the client's autonomy and desires while ensuring their safety and well-being. Choice B is incorrect because while educating the client about the indications for induction is important, it is not the most immediate action to take in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on comparing labor types rather than supporting the client's birth plan. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should first engage with the client directly before involving the healthcare provider.
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