HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.
2. A woman who is breastfeeding calls her obstetrician’s office and reports increased anxiety since the vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago. She stopped taking her antianxiety medications but is thinking of restarting them. What response should the nurse provide?
- A. Describe the potential transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk.
- B. Encourage her to utilize stress-relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing.
- C. Explain that anxiety is a common reaction for mothers of 3-week-old infants.
- D. Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because some antianxiety medications are considered safe during breastfeeding. The nurse should reassure the client and encourage her to discuss options with her healthcare provider to manage anxiety safely while continuing to breastfeed. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the transmission of drugs rather than providing guidance on safe medication use. Choice B, while promoting stress-relieving techniques, does not address the potential need for medication. Choice C is incorrect as it minimizes the woman's reported anxiety, which may require professional intervention.
3. A client with chronic heart failure is admitted with worsening dyspnea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula.
- B. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
- C. Assess the client's lung sounds.
- D. Reposition the client to relieve dyspnea.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with chronic heart failure experiencing worsening dyspnea, the priority action for the nurse is to administer oxygen at 2 liters per nasal cannula. This helps improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress. Administering a diuretic (Choice B) may be necessary but addressing oxygenation comes first. While assessing lung sounds (Choice C) is important, it is not the immediate priority when the client is in respiratory distress. Repositioning the client (Choice D) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation.
4. The nurse prepares to teach clients about blood glucose monitoring. When should clients always check glucose, regardless of age or type of diabetes?
- A. Before going to bed.
- B. After meals.
- C. During acute illness.
- D. Prior to exercising.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: During acute illness. Checking blood glucose during acute illness is crucial as stress can elevate glucose levels. This monitoring is essential regardless of the client's age or the type of diabetes they have. Checking before going to bed (choice A) may be important for some individuals, but it's not as universally necessary as during acute illness. Checking after meals (choice B) and prior to exercising (choice D) are important times for monitoring blood glucose, but they are not as universally applicable as during acute illness.
5. A client is receiving IV fluid therapy for dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's fluid status is improving?
- A. Urine output increases to 50 mL/hour
- B. Client reports feeling more thirsty
- C. Blood pressure decreases from 120/80 to 110/70
- D. Heart rate increases from 80 to 100 beats per minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An increase in urine output is a positive sign that the client's hydration status is improving. It indicates that the kidneys are functioning well and that fluid therapy is effective. Increased urine output helps to eliminate excess fluid and waste products from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Feeling more thirsty (choice B) is a sign of dehydration, not improvement. A decrease in blood pressure (choice C) and an increase in heart rate (choice D) are not typically indicative of improving fluid status during IV fluid therapy for dehydration.
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