an adult client with a broken femur reports muscle spasms what action should the nurse implement while awaiting surgery
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. An adult client with a broken femur reports muscle spasms. What action should the nurse implement while awaiting surgery?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement while awaiting surgery for a client with muscle spasms due to a broken femur is to encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension. Dehydration can exacerbate muscle spasms, so increasing fluid intake can help alleviate them. Checking electrolyte levels may not directly address muscle spasms in this situation. Administering a muscle relaxant should be based on a healthcare provider's prescription, and traction weight adjustments should only be made by the provider overseeing the client's care.

2. The nurse is administering a new medication to a client. What is the priority action before administering the drug?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verifying the client's allergies is the priority action before administering any medication. It is crucial to identify any known allergies to prevent potential allergic reactions, which can be severe and life-threatening. Checking the client's blood pressure, assessing pain levels, and providing education on the medication are important aspects of client care but verifying allergies is essential for ensuring the safety of the client.

3. A client with type 1 diabetes is found unconscious with a blood glucose of 40 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer a 50% dextrose bolus intravenously. In unconscious clients with hypoglycemia, IV dextrose rapidly raises the blood glucose level. Glucagon would be a slower option and is typically used if IV access is unavailable. Oral glucose gel is not appropriate for an unconscious client as it requires swallowing and may cause aspiration. Rechecking the blood glucose level in 15 minutes delays immediate treatment and could lead to further deterioration.

4. At 42-weeks gestation, a client refuses induction and desires a natural delivery. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to discuss alternative ways to support her birth plan. It is crucial to respect the client's autonomy and desires while ensuring their safety and well-being. Choice B is incorrect because while educating the client about the indications for induction is important, it is not the most immediate action to take in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on comparing labor types rather than supporting the client's birth plan. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should first engage with the client directly before involving the healthcare provider.

5. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.

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