HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. The nurse is evaluating the laboratory reports of a client with hypothyroidism. The nurse would expect which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Increased TSH
- B. Increased thyroxine (T4)
- C. Decreased TSH
- D. Decreased T3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased TSH. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to low levels of thyroid hormones. As a compensatory mechanism, the pituitary gland releases more thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to try to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, increased TSH levels are expected in hypothyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because in hypothyroidism, thyroxine (T4) levels are usually decreased, not increased. Choice C is incorrect as hypothyroidism is characterized by increased TSH levels, not decreased. Choice D is also incorrect because in hypothyroidism, T3 levels may be decreased, but TSH is a more sensitive indicator for diagnosis.
2. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?
- A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
- B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
- C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
- D. The client has signed the form freely and voluntarily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.
3. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
- B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports tingling in their feet. What is the nurse's best intervention?
- A. Advise the client to avoid wearing tight shoes.
- B. Refer the client to a podiatrist for foot care.
- C. Teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care.
- D. Administer insulin as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing tingling in their feet is to teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care. This is essential because tingling in the feet can be a sign of neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes. Educating the client on maintaining proper blood sugar levels and foot care practices can help manage neuropathy symptoms and prevent complications like ulcers or infections. Advising the client to avoid tight shoes (Choice A) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue. Referring the client to a podiatrist (Choice B) is important for foot care but does not directly address blood sugar control. Administering insulin (Choice D) is not the priority for managing tingling in the feet related to neuropathy.
5. A 30-year-old male client reports difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery. What intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to suggest?
- A. Suggest taking a mild sedative before bed.
- B. Encourage physical activity before bedtime.
- C. Advise listening to calming music before bed.
- D. Recommend reading a book before bed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to suggest to a 30-year-old male client experiencing difficulty sleeping due to anxiety about his upcoming surgery is to recommend taking a mild sedative before bed. A mild sedative can help manage anxiety and improve sleep in such situations. Encouraging physical activity before bedtime, advising to listen to calming music, or recommending reading a book may not directly address the client's anxiety and may not be as effective in promoting sleep in this scenario.
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