HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?
- A. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
- B. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
- C. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 10 degrees
- D. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position maximizes ventilation and promotes better perfusion to the unaffected lung. Placing the client in this position helps to optimize oxygenation and reduce pressure on the affected lung. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lying on the left side with the head elevated is essential to facilitate better lung expansion and gas exchange in the unaffected lung, while lying on the right side could further compromise the affected lung by increasing pressure on it.
2. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Describes life without purpose
- C. Exhibits mood swings
- D. Complains of insomnia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.
3. An elderly client reports new-onset confusion, nausea, dysuria, and urgency. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Initiate intravenous fluids
- B. Obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen
- C. Administer antibiotics
- D. Start a Foley catheter to obtain a sterile sample
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen. The client's symptoms of confusion, nausea, dysuria, and urgency are suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI). To confirm the diagnosis and identify the causative organism, a urine specimen should be collected before initiating any treatment. Initiating intravenous fluids (Choice A) may be necessary later based on the client's condition but is not the initial priority. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) should be done after confirming the diagnosis through urine culture. Starting a Foley catheter (Choice D) to obtain a sterile sample is more invasive and should not be the first step in the assessment and management of a suspected UTI.
4. Before administering digoxin to a client with heart failure, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Check the client's blood pressure
- B. Monitor the client's heart rate
- C. Assess the client's respiratory rate
- D. Review the client's potassium level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's heart rate. Digoxin slows the heart rate, so it is crucial to assess the heart rate before administering the medication. If the heart rate is below 60 beats per minute, the dose should be held, and the healthcare provider should be notified. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring the heart rate in this case. Assessing the respiratory rate (Choice C) is not directly related to the action of digoxin. Reviewing the client's potassium level (Choice D) is important for clients taking digoxin due to the risk of hypokalemia, but assessing the heart rate takes priority.
5. A 60-year-old male client had a hernia repair in an outpatient surgery clinic. He is awake and alert but has not been able to void since he returned from surgery 6 hours ago. He received 1000 mL of IV fluid. Which action would be most likely to help him void?
- A. Have him drink several glasses of water
- B. Crede the bladder from the bottom to the top
- C. Assist him to stand by the side of the bed to void
- D. Wait 2 hours and have him try to void again
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Assisting the client to stand by the side of the bed to void is the most appropriate action in this situation. Standing to void often helps relieve the bladder, especially after surgery. Option A, having him drink several glasses of water, may not be as effective as the client might already be adequately hydrated. Option B, Crede maneuver, is a technique for emptying the bladder by applying manual pressure and is not the first-line intervention for a client who cannot void post-surgery. Option D, waiting 2 hours before trying to void again, may delay necessary intervention if the client is experiencing urinary retention.
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