HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. What teaching should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid frequent urination at night.
- B. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- C. Avoid potassium-rich foods, such as bananas and oranges.
- D. Monitor the client’s potassium levels weekly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct teaching for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to fluid loss and electrolyte imbalances, so adequate fluid intake is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is typically taken in the morning to avoid nighttime urination. Choice C is incorrect as potassium-rich foods should not be avoided but monitored, as hydrochlorothiazide can cause potassium loss. Choice D is incorrect as potassium levels should be monitored regularly, but not necessarily weekly, unless indicated by the healthcare provider.
2. A client who recently received a prescription for ramelteon to treat sleep deprivation reports experiencing several side effects since taking the drug. Which side effect should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Somnambulism
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Vivid dreams
- D. Daytime sleepiness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Somnambulism' (sleepwalking). Somnambulism is a potentially dangerous side effect that should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. Sleepwalking can pose risks to the individual's safety and may indicate a serious adverse reaction to the medication. Dry mouth (choice B), vivid dreams (choice C), and daytime sleepiness (choice D) are common side effects of ramelteon and are generally not considered as urgent or serious as somnambulism. While these side effects can impact the client's quality of life, they are not typically associated with immediate safety concerns.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's oxygenation is improving?
- A. Pulse oximetry reading of 94%
- B. Heart rate increases from 80 to 90 beats per minute
- C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 20 breaths per minute
- D. Client reports increased energy levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 94% indicates adequate oxygenation. Monitoring oxygen saturation is the most objective way to assess the effectiveness of oxygen therapy. Choices B, C, and D do not directly reflect the client's oxygenation status. An increase in heart rate or respiratory rate may indicate increased work of breathing or stress on the body. The client reporting increased energy levels is subjective and may not directly correlate with improved oxygenation.
4. An older client with type 1 diabetes arrives at the clinic with abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion. What should the nurse implement first?
- A. Start an IV infusion of normal saline.
- B. Obtain a serum potassium level.
- C. Administer the client's usual dose of insulin.
- D. Assess the pupillary response to light.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Start an IV infusion of normal saline. The client is showing signs of dehydration, such as abdominal cramping, vomiting, lethargy, and confusion, which can be exacerbated by hyperglycemia. Rehydration is the initial priority to address the fluid imbalance. Option B, obtaining a serum potassium level, though important in the management of diabetes, is not the immediate priority over rehydration. Option C, administering the client's usual dose of insulin, should only be done after addressing the dehydration and confirming the client's blood glucose levels. Option D, assessing the pupillary response to light, is not the most urgent intervention needed in this situation compared to rehydration to correct fluid imbalance.
5. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure presents with shortness of breath and pink frothy sputum. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally.
- B. Heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm.
- C. Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.
- D. Elevated blood pressure and shortness of breath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate. Pink frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Increased respiratory rate is also concerning as it indicates the body's effort to compensate for the decreased oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not the most critical findings in this situation. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally may indicate a pneumothorax or atelectasis, heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm can be managed with medications and further assessment, and elevated blood pressure with shortness of breath is not as urgent as pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.
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