after an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity the healthcare provider prescribes a 24 hour creatinine clearance test before starting the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone

1. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.

2. What information should the nurse include in the client's health record after a fall in the bathroom?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the nurse should document factual, objective information such as the injury sustained by the client. Reporting the specific injury, like a fracture to the left hip, is crucial for accurate medical records. Choices A, B, and C lack specific detail about the injury and focus on different aspects of the fall that are not as pertinent for the health record. Choice A only mentions the fall without specifying the injury, choice B introduces blame without focusing on the client's condition, and choice C adds unnecessary information about the client's pulse which is not directly related to the fall injury.

3. While palpating the gallbladder of a mildly obese client, what finding does the nurse expect if the gallbladder is inflamed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct. If the gallbladder is inflamed, the nurse would expect to find severe tenderness and guarding, which are typical signs of acute cholecystitis. This indicates an inflammatory process in the gallbladder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because slight discomfort, a sensation of fullness, or no symptoms unless extremely inflamed are not typical findings associated with gallbladder inflammation.

4. Prior to administering warfarin to a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, what lab result should the nurse review?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR). These lab values are crucial for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes these results. Ensuring the client's PT/INR levels are within the therapeutic range is essential to prevent clotting or excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation.

5. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted to the postoperative unit after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the client's serum laboratory values requires intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A total calcium level of 5.0 mg/dL is critically low and indicates possible hypocalcemia, a common complication after thyroid surgery. This condition can lead to tetany and requires immediate intervention. Blood glucose within normal range, sodium, and potassium levels are not indicative of an immediate postoperative complication like hypocalcemia in this case.

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