HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Check the client's urine output hourly
- B. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the results
- D. Start the 24-hour urine collection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.
2. A client receiving codeine for pain every 4 to 6 hours over 4 days. Which assessment should the nurse perform before administering the next dose?
- A. Auscultate the bowel sounds.
- B. Palpate the ankles for edema.
- C. Observe the skin for bruising.
- D. Measure the body temperature.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Auscultate the bowel sounds. Codeine is known to cause constipation, so it is essential to assess bowel sounds before administering another dose to monitor for potential constipation or bowel motility issues. Palpating the ankles for edema (Choice B) is not directly related to codeine use or its side effects. Observing the skin for bruising (Choice C) is important but not specifically associated with codeine administration. Measuring body temperature (Choice D) is not a priority assessment related to codeine use; monitoring for constipation is more critical in this case.
3. The nurse is feeding an older adult who was admitted with aspiration pneumonia. The client is weak and begins coughing while attempting to drink through a straw. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to drink more slowly
- B. Stop feeding and assess for signs of aspiration
- C. Elevate the head of the bed further
- D. Teach coughing and deep breathing exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When an older adult with aspiration pneumonia coughs while attempting to drink, it may indicate aspiration. Aspiration can lead to serious complications. Therefore, the appropriate intervention for the nurse in this situation is to stop feeding immediately and assess the client for signs of aspiration. Encouraging the client to drink more slowly (Choice A) may not address the risk of aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed further (Choice C) is generally beneficial to prevent aspiration but is not the priority when immediate assessment is needed. Teaching coughing and deep breathing exercises (Choice D) is not appropriate when the client is actively coughing during feeding and requires immediate assessment for potential aspiration.
4. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). What should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
- B. Assess for gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea or diarrhea.
- C. Monitor for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat.
- D. Administer DMARDs with meals to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring for signs of infection, such as fever or sore throat, is crucial when a client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs). DMARDs can suppress the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections. Early detection of infections allows for prompt treatment and helps prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver toxicity and gastrointestinal side effects are possible side effects of DMARDs, monitoring for signs of infection takes priority due to the increased risk of infections associated with these medications.
5. When assessing a recently delivered multigravida client, the nurse finds that her vaginal bleeding is more than expected. Which factor in this client's history is related to this finding?
- A. The client delivered a large baby
- B. She is a gravida 6, para 5
- C. The client had a cesarean delivery
- D. The client had a prolonged labor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with a higher gravida and para count is at greater risk for uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. The uterus may be less effective at contracting after multiple pregnancies, causing increased vaginal bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because delivering a large baby, having a cesarean delivery, or experiencing prolonged labor do not directly correlate with an increased risk of postpartum hemorrhage in a multigravida client as compared to the gravida and para count.
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