HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet Capstone
1. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to prevent aspiration during meals?
- A. Encourage the client to take large bites of food
- B. Advise the client to eat quickly to prevent fatigue
- C. Offer the client thin liquids with meals
- D. Instruct the client to sit upright while eating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client to sit upright while eating is crucial to prevent aspiration in stroke clients. This position helps in safe swallowing and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the airway. Encouraging the client to take large bites of food (Choice A) can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Advising the client to eat quickly (Choice B) may lead to fatigue and compromise safe swallowing. Offering thin liquids (Choice C) can also increase the risk of aspiration in stroke clients, as thicker liquids are usually recommended to prevent aspiration.
2. A client with multiple sclerosis is experiencing fatigue. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to increase physical activity.
- B. Encourage the client to take rest breaks during activities.
- C. Administer a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue.
- D. Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Advise the client to use energy conservation techniques. Energy conservation techniques are crucial in managing fatigue in multiple sclerosis. These techniques involve prioritizing activities, pacing oneself, and taking rest breaks to prevent overexertion, which can exacerbate fatigue. Encouraging the client to increase physical activity (choice A) may worsen fatigue if not done with proper energy conservation. Taking rest breaks during activities (choice B) is important but falls secondary to teaching energy conservation techniques. Administering a stimulant medication to reduce fatigue (choice C) should not be the priority as non-pharmacological interventions like energy conservation should be attempted first.
3. A client with Type 2 diabetes is admitted with frequent hyperglycemic episodes and glycosylated hemoglobin (A1C) of 10%. What actions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin to manage glucose levels.
- B. Teaching foot care to prevent injuries.
- C. Coordinating carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections.
- D. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In managing a client with Type 2 diabetes experiencing frequent hyperglycemic episodes and with a high A1C level, it is crucial to coordinate carbohydrate-controlled meals and subcutaneous injections. This approach helps regulate blood glucose levels effectively. Mixing glargine with aspart insulin (Choice A) is not a recommended practice as these insulins have different onset and peak times. Teaching foot care (Choice B) is important in diabetes management but is not the priority in this scenario. Reviewing site rotation for insulin injections (Choice D) is important to prevent lipodystrophy but is not the immediate action needed to address the client's hyperglycemia and high A1C level.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin injections. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Hemoglobin
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. Monitoring hemoglobin is crucial to assess the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Serum potassium levels are often monitored in chronic kidney disease, but it is not the primary parameter to evaluate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. White blood cell count and platelet count are not directly influenced by erythropoietin injections for chronic kidney disease.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed anticoagulants. What should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising.
- B. Monitor the client’s vital signs every hour.
- C. Monitor for pain in the affected limb.
- D. Assess for signs of pulmonary embolism, such as sudden shortness of breath.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with DVT, assessing for pulmonary embolism is crucial as a clot in the lungs can be life-threatening. Sudden shortness of breath or chest pain are key signs of a pulmonary embolism. While monitoring for signs of bleeding is important due to anticoagulant therapy, the immediate concern is detecting a potential pulmonary embolism. Monitoring vital signs and pain in the affected limb are relevant aspects of care but are not as urgent as assessing for pulmonary embolism in this scenario.
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