the nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia what information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow up rath
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone

1. The nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia. What information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow-up rather than delegate care to the nursing assistant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A change in responsiveness, as indicated by being minimally responsive to voice and touch, suggests a potential acute issue that requires immediate nursing assessment and intervention rather than delegation. Changes in vital signs (choices A, B, D) can be important but do not always indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention compared to a change in responsiveness.

2. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

4. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

5. A client with Alzheimer's disease is prescribed donepezil. What is the most important teaching point?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed donepezil is that it helps improve cognitive function. While it is important to take the medication as directed for best results (choice A) and report any unusual changes in behavior (choice B), the key point is that donepezil is not a cure for Alzheimer's disease (choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is C.

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