Nursing Elites

1. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
• B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
• D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

2. The nurse is providing care for a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. Which intervention should the nurse implement to prevent complications associated with the tube?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees during feedings
• B. Aspirate gastric contents before administering medications
• C. Clamp the tube between feedings
• D. Flush the tube with water before and after feedings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Flushing the PEG tube with water before and after feedings helps prevent clogging and maintains tube patency. Proper flushing is essential for avoiding complications related to tube blockages. Elevating the head of the bed is important for preventing aspiration during and after feedings, not specifically related to PEG tube complications. Aspirating gastric contents before administering medications is not routinely recommended for PEG tube care. Clamping the tube between feedings can lead to tube occlusion and is not a standard practice in PEG tube care.

3. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
• B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
• C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
• D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

4. After an older client receives treatment for drug toxicity, the healthcare provider prescribes a 24-hour creatinine clearance test. Before starting the urine collection, the nurse noted that the client's serum creatinine was 0.3 mg/dL. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the client's urine output hourly
• B. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the results
• D. Start the 24-hour urine collection

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 0.3 mg/dL is abnormally low, indicating potential issues with the interpretation of the creatinine clearance test. It is crucial for the nurse to notify the healthcare provider of this result before proceeding with the 24-hour urine collection. Checking urine output, instructing the client to increase fluid intake, or starting the urine collection without consulting the healthcare provider could lead to incorrect test results and misinterpretation of the client's renal function.

5. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?

• A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
• B. No bowel movement since surgery.
• C. No appetite for breakfast.
• D. A positive Chvostek's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.

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