HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with anxiety disorder is experiencing increased anxiety prior to vaginal delivery. What should the nurse’s initial action be?
- A. Increase the client's sedative dose
- B. Encourage the client to express her feelings and provide emotional support
- C. Initiate breathing techniques to manage anxiety
- D. Administer anxiolytic medication to calm the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action for a client with anxiety disorder experiencing increased anxiety prior to vaginal delivery is to encourage the client to express her feelings and provide emotional support. Emotional support is crucial in reducing anxiety during childbirth. Initiating breathing techniques or administering medications should come after emotional support has been provided. Increasing sedative doses may not address the underlying emotional needs of the client and can have potential risks.
2. A nurse is performing CPR on an adult who went into cardiopulmonary arrest. Another nurse enters the room in response to the call. After checking the client's pulse and respirations, what should be the function of the second nurse?
- A. Relieve the nurse performing CPR
- B. Go get the code cart
- C. Participate with the compressions or breathing
- D. Validate the client's advanced directive
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The second nurse should assist with compressions or breathing to ensure the patient receives adequate care during CPR. This immediate intervention is crucial in maintaining blood circulation and oxygenation to vital organs. Choice A is incorrect because simply relieving the nurse performing CPR may lead to a delay in essential life-saving measures. Choice B is incorrect as the primary focus should be on providing direct assistance rather than fetching equipment. Choice D is incorrect as validating the client's advanced directive is not the priority in this emergency situation.
3. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
- B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
- C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
- D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.
4. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
- B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
- C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
- D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.
5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus arrives at the clinic reporting episodes of weakness and palpitations. Which finding should the nurse identify may indicate an emerging situation?
- A. History of hypertension
- B. Fingertips feel numb
- C. Reduced deep tendon reflexes
- D. Elevated fasting blood glucose level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Numb fingertips may suggest neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes that may indicate a worsening condition. Episodes of weakness and palpitations, combined with neuropathy symptoms, could also suggest hypoglycemia or poor glycemic control, requiring further investigation. The other choices are less likely to be directly related to the client's current symptoms. While a history of hypertension is a common comorbidity in clients with diabetes, it may not directly explain the reported weakness and palpitations. Reduced deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of certain neurological conditions rather than acute emerging situations related to the client's current symptoms. An elevated fasting blood glucose level is expected in a client with type 2 diabetes and may not be the primary indicator of an emerging situation in this context.
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