HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International normalized ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
2. Which activity is most important for a client recovering from a hip replacement to avoid during the first few weeks of recovery?
- A. Sitting in a chair for short periods
- B. Crossing the legs while sitting
- C. Walking with assistance
- D. Performing light stretching exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crossing the legs while sitting. Cross-leg position after a hip replacement can significantly increase the risk of hip dislocation. During the first few weeks of recovery, it is crucial for clients to avoid crossing their legs to protect the new joint. Choices A, C, and D are not as critical during the initial recovery phase. Sitting in a chair for short periods, walking with assistance, and performing light stretching exercises are generally encouraged activities that can help in the recovery process without posing a significant risk of complications like hip dislocation.
3. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?
- A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
- B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
- C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
- D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.
4. A client with diabetes insipidus is admitted due to a pituitary tumor. What complication should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Monitor for elevated blood pressure.
- B. Monitor for ketonuria.
- C. Monitor for peripheral edema.
- D. Monitor for hypokalemia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, excessive urination can lead to electrolyte imbalances, particularly low potassium levels (hypokalemia). The loss of potassium through increased urination can result in muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical complication of diabetes insipidus due to pituitary tumors. Ketonuria (Choice B) is more commonly associated with diabetes mellitus due to inadequate insulin levels. Peripheral edema (Choice C) is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus.
5. A nurse assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?
- A. Flaccid paralysis
- B. Pupils fixed and dilated
- C. Diminished spinal reflexes
- D. Reduced sensory responses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Fixed, dilated pupils are a sign of increased intracranial pressure or brain injury, indicating a potentially serious neurological condition. Flaccid paralysis, although concerning, may not always indicate immediate life-threatening issues. Diminished spinal reflexes and reduced sensory responses are important neurological assessments but are not as acutely concerning as fixed, dilated pupils in this context.
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