Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Monitor the client's potassium levels closely.
• B. Assess for signs of hyperkalemia.
• C. Instruct the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Assess for signs of hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Therefore, the nurse's priority intervention should be to assess the client for signs of hyperkalemia, such as muscle weakness, fatigue, and potentially dangerous cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely (choice A) is important but assessing for signs of hyperkalemia takes precedence. Instructing the client to increase intake of potassium-rich foods (choice C) can exacerbate hyperkalemia in this case. Increasing the client’s fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of spironolactone.

3. A client is admitted with a large pleural effusion. Which procedure should the nurse prepare the client for?

• A. Thoracentesis.
• B. Endotracheal intubation.
• C. Chest tube insertion.
• D. Bronchoscopy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The correct procedure for a client with a large pleural effusion is thoracentesis. Thoracentesis is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used to remove fluid from the pleural space, which can help relieve symptoms associated with pleural effusion. Choice B (Endotracheal intubation) is incorrect as it is a procedure to secure the airway by placing a tube into the trachea. Choice C (Chest tube insertion) is incorrect as it is typically done to drain air or fluid from the pleural space over a longer period. Choice D (Bronchoscopy) is incorrect as it is a procedure used to visualize the airways and diagnose lung conditions, not specifically for pleural effusion removal.

4. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

• A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
• B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
• C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
• D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

5. In assessing an adult client with a partial rebreather mask, the nurse notes that the oxygen reservoir bag does not deflate completely during inspiration and the client’s respiratory rate is 14 breaths/minute. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove the mask immediately
• B. Document the assessment data
• C. Increase the oxygen flow
• D. Increase the respiratory rate setting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to document the assessment data. In a partial rebreather mask, it is normal for the oxygen reservoir bag not to deflate completely during inspiration. Additionally, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute falls within the normal range. Therefore, these findings indicate that the mask is functioning as intended. Removing the mask immediately is unnecessary as there are no signs of distress. Increasing the oxygen flow or adjusting the respiratory rate setting is not warranted based on the assessment findings, as they are within normal parameters.

Similar Questions