a client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis dvt and is receiving heparin therapy what is the most important laboratory value to monitor during hepa
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with a new diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, there is an increase in metabolism, leading to symptoms such as increased appetite, weight loss, and heat intolerance. Therefore, the nurse should expect an increased appetite in a client with hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased heart rate and cold intolerance are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, while weight gain is not typically seen in hyperthyroidism.

3. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.

4. A client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and has a rash on the chest. What is the nurse's first action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first when a client receiving IV antibiotics for sepsis reports itching and a rash on the chest is to stop the infusion and notify the healthcare provider. This is crucial in preventing the allergic reaction from worsening. Administering an antihistamine (choice A) may address the symptoms but does not address the primary concern of stopping the infusion. Slowing the infusion rate and monitoring the client (choice C) may not be sufficient if the reaction is severe. Administering epinephrine subcutaneously (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for this situation.

5. A nurse is working with a new graduate nurse on the delegation of tasks to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task would the new nurse need more teaching about delegating?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Assessing a client's pain level. This task involves clinical judgment and interpretation, which are within the scope of a licensed nurse's practice. Delegating pain assessment to unlicensed personnel could lead to errors in pain management and inappropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D involve tasks that can be safely delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel as they do not involve interpretation or nursing judgment. Taking a client's blood pressure, providing oral hygiene, and assisting with ambulation are all routine tasks that can be appropriately assigned to UAP under the supervision of a licensed nurse.

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