HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?
- A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
- B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
- C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
- D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.
2. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?
- A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
- B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
- C. A client who had 3 episodes of incontinent diarrhea
- D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to being malnourished and on bed rest, leading to decreased mobility and poor nutrition. This combination puts the client at significant risk for skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because although obesity is a risk factor for developing pressure ulcers, immobility and poor nutrition are higher risk factors. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence can contribute to skin breakdown but is not as high a risk factor as immobility and poor nutrition. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client, even if diabetic, has better mobility than a bedridden client and is at lower risk for developing decubitus ulcers.
3. A male client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer prescribed anticoagulant.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Auscultate lung sounds.
- D. Prepare for chest physiotherapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering an anticoagulant is the nurse's priority action in this situation. Given the client's history of DVT and the presentation of new onset shortness of breath and a productive cough, there is a concern for a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening complication of DVT. Administering an anticoagulant promptly is crucial to prevent further clot formation and to manage the existing clot, reducing the risk of pulmonary embolism. While auscultating lung sounds and preparing for chest physiotherapy are important actions in respiratory assessment and management, the priority in this case is to address the potential complication of a pulmonary embolism by administering the anticoagulant. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after initiating the immediate intervention of anticoagulant therapy.
4. The nurse is teaching a group of women about osteoporosis and exercise. The nurse should emphasize the need for which type of regular activity?
- A. Weight-bearing exercise
- B. Aerobic exercise
- C. Low-impact exercises such as swimming
- D. Stretching and flexibility exercises
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight-bearing exercise. Weight-bearing exercise helps build and maintain bone density, which is critical in preventing osteoporosis. Activities like aerobic exercises, stretching, and low-impact exercises such as swimming are beneficial for overall fitness but do not directly contribute to improving bone strength, making them less effective in preventing osteoporosis.
5. A client with hyperthyroidism is admitted for total thyroidectomy. What is the nurse's priority post-operative intervention?
- A. Monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia.
- B. Monitor for signs of respiratory distress.
- C. Administer oral calcium supplements.
- D. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's calcium levels for hypocalcemia. After a total thyroidectomy, there is a risk of accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. This complication can manifest within the first 24-48 hours post-op. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to prevent serious complications such as tetany or seizures. While monitoring for respiratory distress is important, it is not the priority in this case. Administering oral calcium supplements should only be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription and after assessing the client's calcium levels. Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is beneficial for respiratory function but is not the priority intervention for a client at risk for hypocalcemia post-thyroidectomy.
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