Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving IV heparin reports tarry stools and abdominal pain. What interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Prepare to administer warfarin.
• B. Assess the characteristics of the client's pain.
• C. Obtain recent partial thromboplastin time results.
• D. Monitor stool for the presence of blood.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the client receiving IV heparin who reports tarry stools and abdominal pain is to monitor the stool for the presence of blood. This is crucial to assess for gastrointestinal bleeding, a potential complication of heparin therapy. Assessing the characteristics of the client's pain may be helpful but is not the priority when signs of GI bleeding are present. Administering warfarin is not appropriate without a thorough assessment and confirmation of the cause of symptoms. While obtaining recent partial thromboplastin time results is important in monitoring heparin therapy, in this scenario, the immediate concern is to assess for possible GI bleeding.

2. A child has a nosebleed (epistaxis) while playing soccer. In what position should the nurse place the child?

• A. Position the child lying flat and apply pressure to the bridge of the nose.
• B. Position the child sitting up and leaning forward.
• C. Have the child tilt the head back and pinch the nose.
• D. Position the child lying on their side and apply ice to the nose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to position the child sitting up and leaning forward. This position helps prevent blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of choking or vomiting. Choice A is incorrect because lying flat can cause blood to flow down the throat. Choice C is wrong as tilting the head back may lead to blood entering the throat. Choice D is also incorrect as applying ice is not recommended for nosebleeds and lying on the side may not prevent blood from flowing down the throat.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Hemoglobin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

4. A client in labor is experiencing late decelerations in fetal heart rate. What intervention should the nurse perform first?

• A. Reposition the client onto her left side.
• B. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section.
• D. Increase IV fluid administration to improve perfusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate fetal distress due to compromised placental perfusion. Repositioning the client onto her left side is the priority intervention as it can increase blood flow to the placenta, improving fetal oxygenation. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (choice B) can be the next step after repositioning if late decelerations persist. Emergency cesarean section (choice C) is not the initial action for late decelerations unless other interventions are ineffective. Increasing IV fluid administration (choice D) is not the first-line intervention for late decelerations; repositioning takes precedence to address the underlying cause.

5. A client with a recent myocardial infarction is prescribed a beta-blocker. What side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Monitor the client for bradycardia.
• B. Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.
• C. Monitor the client for signs of hyperglycemia.
• D. Monitor for signs of fluid retention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Check the client’s blood pressure for signs of hypotension.' Beta-blockers can lead to decreased heart rate, but bradycardia is not the primary side effect to monitor. Monitoring for bradycardia is more relevant when administering medications like digoxin. Hyperglycemia is associated with medications like corticosteroids, not beta-blockers. Fluid retention is a side effect seen with medications like corticosteroids or calcium channel blockers, not beta-blockers. Therefore, in a client taking a beta-blocker after a myocardial infarction, monitoring for hypotension is crucial due to the medication's mechanism of action.

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