HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer phytonadione to a newborn. Which statement made by the parents indicates understanding why the healthcare provider is administering this medication?
- A. Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.
- B. Help an immature liver.
- C. Improve insufficient dietary intake.
- D. Stimulate the immune system.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Prevent hemorrhagic disorders.' Phytonadione (vitamin K) is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease by promoting blood clotting. Newborns are born with low levels of vitamin K, which is essential for blood clotting, hence the administration to prevent hemorrhagic disorders. Choice B is incorrect because phytonadione is not given to help an immature liver but to supply vitamin K. Choice C is incorrect as phytonadione is not administered to improve dietary intake but to provide essential vitamin K. Choice D is incorrect as phytonadione does not stimulate the immune system but helps with blood clotting.
2. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?
- A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
- B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
- C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
- D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.
3. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor indicating that the amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously at home. She is in active labor and feels the need to bear down and push. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Color and consistency of fluid.
- B. Estimated amount of fluid.
- C. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured.
- D. Time the membranes ruptured.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess for the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can suggest fetal compromise and the need for further evaluation and monitoring. The estimated amount of fluid is less critical than assessing for meconium. While noting any odor when the membranes ruptured may provide some information, it is not as crucial as assessing for meconium. The time the membranes ruptured is important for documenting the timeline but does not directly impact immediate patient care like assessing for fetal distress.
4. What action should the nurse take if an infant, who was born yesterday weighing 7.5 lbs (3,402 grams), weighs 7 lbs (3,175 grams) today?
- A. Inform and assure the mother that this is normal weight loss.
- B. Encourage the mother to increase the frequency of breastfeeding.
- C. After verifying the accuracy of weight, notify the healthcare provider.
- D. Monitor the stool and urine output of the neonate for the last 24 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform and assure the mother that this weight loss is normal. Newborns can lose up to 10% of their birth weight in the first few days after birth, which is attributed to fluid loss and adjustment to life outside the womb. This weight loss is typically regained within the first two weeks of life. It is crucial for the nurse to educate and provide reassurance to the mother about this common occurrence in newborns.
5. A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care?
- A. Patellar reflex 4+
- B. Blood pressure 158/80
- C. Four-hour urine output 240 ml
- D. Respirations 12/minute
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patellar reflex 4+'. Hyperreflexia is a sign of severe preeclampsia and increases the risk of seizures, indicating the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing this finding are crucial in managing the client's condition and preventing complications.
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