HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. A woman who delivered a 9-pound baby via cesarean section under spinal anesthesia is recovering in the post-anesthesia care unit. Her fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and a continuous trickle of bright red blood with no clots is observed by the nurse. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess her blood pressure.
- B. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
- C. Allow the infant to breastfeed.
- D. Massage the fundus vigorously.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, continuous bleeding despite a firm fundus suggests a possible laceration. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to assess the woman's blood pressure. This helps determine the severity of blood loss and guides further interventions, such as identifying the need for additional assessments or interventions to control bleeding. Applying an ice pack to the perineum (choice B) would not address the ongoing bleeding issue. Allowing the infant to breastfeed (choice C) may not be safe if there is significant bleeding. Massaging the fundus vigorously (choice D) is contraindicated when there is continuous bleeding as it can worsen the bleeding or cause further harm.
2. A couple has been trying to conceive for nine months without success. Which information obtained from the clients is most likely to have an impact on the couple's ability to conceive a child?
- A. Both partners have a daily exercise regimen that includes running four miles each morning.
- B. The couple has a history of having sexual intercourse 2 to 3 times per week.
- C. The woman's menstrual period occurs every 35 days.
- D. They use lubricants with each sexual encounter to decrease friction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Using lubricants during sexual encounters can potentially impact the couple's ability to conceive a child. Some lubricants may contain substances that are spermicidal or alter the vaginal environment, affecting sperm motility and fertility.
3. The healthcare provider prescribes Amoxicillin 500mg PO every 8hrs for a child who weighs 22 pounds. The available suspension is labeled Amoxicillin Suspension 250mg/5ml. The recommended maximum dose is 50mg/kg/24hr. How many mL should the nurse administer in a single dose based on the child’s weight?
- A. 10mL
- B. 15mL
- C. 7.5mL
- D. 5mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the dose for the child weighing 22 pounds, first convert the weight to kg: 22 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 10 kg. The maximum dose based on weight would be 10 kg × 50 mg/kg/24hr = 500 mg/24hr. Since the medication is prescribed every 8 hours, the dose for each administration would be 500 mg ÷ 3 doses = 166.67 mg. As the available suspension is 250mg/5ml, the nurse should administer 166.67 mg ÷ 250 mg/mL = 0.67 mL per dose. However, since it's not practical to administer a fraction of a milliliter, the nurse should round up to the nearest appropriate dose, which is 10mL.
4. While preparing a 10-year-old with a lacerated forehead for suturing, the nurse notices both parents and a 12-year-old sibling at the child’s bedside. Which instruction best supports the family's involvement?
- A. While waiting for the healthcare provider, only one visitor may stay with the child.
- B. All of you should leave while the healthcare provider sutures the child’s forehead.
- C. It is best if the sibling goes to the waiting room until the suturing is completed.
- D. Please decide who will stay when the healthcare provider begins suturing.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Involving the family by letting them decide who will stay during the suturing process promotes family engagement and comfort, ensuring the presence of a familiar person for the child during the procedure.
5. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in the client's nursing care plan?
- A. Assess temperature every hour.
- B. Allow liberal family visitation.
- C. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
- D. Keep an airway at the bedside.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the case of eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep an airway at the bedside. Eclampsia is associated with a high risk of convulsions, and having an airway readily available is crucial for prompt intervention in the event of seizures. Assessing temperature, allowing family visitation, and monitoring vital signs are important aspects of care but ensuring airway patency takes precedence in this situation to manage potential complications and ensure the client's safety.
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