Nursing Elites

1. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?

• A. 3-1-2-0-3.
• B. 4-1-2-0-3.
• C. 2-1-2-1-2.
• D. 3-1-1-0-3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.

2. At 14-weeks gestation, a client arrives at the Emergency Center complaining of a dull pain in the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. The LPN/LVN obtains a blood sample and initiates an IV. Thirty minutes after admission, the client reports feeling a sharp abdominal pain and shoulder pain. Assessment findings include diaphoresis, a heart rate of 120 beats/minute, and a blood pressure of 86/48. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Check the hematocrit results.
• B. Administer pain medication.
• C. Increase the rate of IV fluids.
• D. Monitor the client for contractions.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms suggest hypovolemic shock, possibly due to an ectopic pregnancy. Increasing IV fluids is crucial to stabilize the client by improving blood pressure and perfusion. This intervention helps address the underlying issue of hypovolemia and supports the client's hemodynamic status, which takes priority in this emergent situation.

3. When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?

• A. Milia are white marks caused by sebaceous glands and typically resolve within 2 to 4 weeks.
• B. Meconium is the first stool and is typically dark green or black in color.
• C. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance mainly found in skin folds, providing a protective layer.
• D. Pseudostrabismus in newborns usually self-resolves without the need for intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.

4. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

• A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
• B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
• C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
• D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

5. A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain blood culture.
• B. Administer penicillin.
• C. Cover lesion with a dressing.
• D. Prepare her for cesarean section.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active herpes lesions at the time of delivery increase the risk of neonatal transmission. The most appropriate action in this scenario is to prepare the client for a cesarean section. A cesarean section is often recommended to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission of herpes simplex virus during delivery, especially when active lesions are present. This intervention helps minimize direct contact between the newborn and the infected genital tract secretions, thereby decreasing the risk of transmission.

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