a pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit in reviewing her childbearing history the client indicates that she has delivered p
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HESI RN

Maternity HESI Quizlet

1. A pregnant woman comes to the prenatal clinic for an initial visit. In reviewing her childbearing history, the client indicates that she has delivered premature twins, one full-term baby, and has had no abortions. Which GTPAL should the LPN/LVN document in this client's record?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct GTPAL for this client is 3-1-1-0-3. G (Gravida) is 3, indicating a total of 3 pregnancies. T (Term) is 1, representing 1 full-term delivery. P (Preterm) is 1, not 2 as mentioned in the question, as twins count as one pregnancy event. A (Abortions) is 0, and L (Living) is 3, indicating 3 living children (twins count as 1). Therefore, the correct answer is 3-1-1-0-3.

2. The LPN/LVN should explain to a 30-year-old gravida client that alpha fetoprotein testing is recommended for which purpose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Screen for neural tube defects. Alpha fetoprotein testing is primarily used to screen for neural tube defects and other fetal abnormalities. It is not used to detect cardiovascular disorders, monitor placental functioning, or assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.

3. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.

4. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

5. The caregiver observes a mother giving her 11-month-old ferrous sulfate (iron drops), followed by 2 ounces of orange juice. What should the caregiver do next?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The high vitamin C content in orange juice aids in the absorption of iron. Providing positive feedback to the mother for administering the iron drops with orange juice is appropriate as it enhances iron absorption, benefiting the infant. Encouraging and acknowledging correct medication administration can help reinforce good practices and build confidence in the caregiver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the beneficial practice of administering iron drops with orange juice, which enhances iron absorption. Changing the method of administration based on incorrect assumptions or instructing to withhold feeding after giving iron drops is unnecessary and not evidence-based.

Similar Questions

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