Nursing Elites

1. A client whose labor is being augmented with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion requests an epidural for pain control. Findings of the last vaginal exam, performed 1 hour ago, were 3 cm cervical dilation, 60% effacement, and a -2 station. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion rate
• B. Determine current cervical dilation
• C. Request placement of the epidural
• D. Give a bolus of intravenous fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client receiving an oxytocin infusion who requests an epidural, it is crucial to give a bolus of intravenous fluids first. This action helps prevent hypotension, a common side effect of epidural anesthesia, before the placement of the epidural. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential to support maternal blood pressure stability during the procedure.

2. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?

• A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
• B. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can ensure that will happen.
• C. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some activities you could do while in bed?
• D. Labor is difficult, and you need to use this time to rest before assuming child-caring duties.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.

3. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?

• A. Maternal blood pressure.
• B. Level of pain sensation
• C. Station of presenting part.
• D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Following the administration of epidural anesthesia, the most crucial assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct is monitoring maternal blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension as a common side effect, which can have significant implications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, close monitoring of maternal blood pressure is essential to detect and manage any hypotensive episodes promptly. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments during labor and delivery, but in this specific scenario of post-epidural anesthesia, monitoring maternal blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential risk of hypotension.

4. When can a woman who thinks she may be pregnant use a home pregnancy test to diagnose pregnancy?

• A. A home pregnancy test can be used right after your first missed period.
• B. These tests are most accurate after you have missed your second period.
• C. Home pregnancy tests often give false positives and should not be trusted.
• D. The test can provide accurate information when used right after ovulation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Home pregnancy tests detect hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy, and are most accurate after the first missed period when hCG levels are higher. Testing too early may result in a false negative. Waiting until after the first missed period increases the reliability of the test results. Choice B is incorrect as waiting until after the second missed period is unnecessary and may delay seeking appropriate healthcare. Choice C is incorrect as home pregnancy tests are generally reliable when used correctly. Choice D is incorrect because ovulation occurs before the period, and testing immediately after ovulation may not provide accurate results.

5. The client is 24 hours postpartum and is being discharged. The nurse explains that vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. If the client starts having red bleeding after the color changes, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences red bleeding after the color changes, it may indicate possible hemorrhage or retained placental fragments, which require immediate attention. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt evaluation and management of potential complications.

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