Nursing Elites

1. A client whose labor is being augmented with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion requests an epidural for pain control. Findings of the last vaginal exam, performed 1 hour ago, were 3 cm cervical dilation, 60% effacement, and a -2 station. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion rate
• B. Determine current cervical dilation
• C. Request placement of the epidural
• D. Give a bolus of intravenous fluids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client receiving an oxytocin infusion who requests an epidural, it is crucial to give a bolus of intravenous fluids first. This action helps prevent hypotension, a common side effect of epidural anesthesia, before the placement of the epidural. Maintaining adequate hydration is essential to support maternal blood pressure stability during the procedure.

2. At 35 weeks gestation, a client complains of 'pain whenever the baby moves.' The nurse notes a temperature of 101.2 F (38.4 C) with severe abdominal or uterine tenderness on palpation. What condition do these findings indicate?

• A. Round ligament strain.
• B. Chorioamnionitis.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Viral infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of fever and abdominal tenderness, along with the gestational age, are classic signs of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid. Chorioamnionitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Round ligament strain (Choice A) typically presents with sharp, stabbing pain on the sides of the abdomen and is not associated with fever or uterine tenderness. Abruptio placentae (Choice C) presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, often with a board-like uterus. Viral infections (Choice D) may present with a variety of symptoms, but the combination of fever, abdominal tenderness, and gestational age in this scenario points more towards chorioamnionitis.

3. A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain blood culture.
• B. Administer penicillin.
• C. Cover lesion with a dressing.
• D. Prepare her for cesarean section.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active herpes lesions at the time of delivery increase the risk of neonatal transmission. The most appropriate action in this scenario is to prepare the client for a cesarean section. A cesarean section is often recommended to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission of herpes simplex virus during delivery, especially when active lesions are present. This intervention helps minimize direct contact between the newborn and the infected genital tract secretions, thereby decreasing the risk of transmission.

4. A client who is 32 weeks' gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Inspect the client's face for edema.
• B. Ascertain the frequency of headaches.
• C. Evaluate for a history of cluster headaches.
• D. Observe and time the client's contractions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inspecting the client's face for edema is crucial to assess for preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, particularly facial edema, can be a significant indicator of preeclampsia, prompting the need for further evaluation and management to ensure the well-being of both the client and the unborn child.

5. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

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