Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a laboring client on continuous fetal monitoring, the nurse notes a fetal heart rate pattern that falls and rises abruptly with a 'V' shaped appearance. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Change the maternal position.
• B. Administer oxygen at 10 L by mask.
• C. Prepare for a potential cesarean.
• D. Allow the client to begin pushing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of fetal heart rate patterns showing abrupt falls and rises with a 'V' shaped appearance, it indicates possible cord compression. Changing the maternal position, such as moving the mother onto her side, can relieve the pressure off the cord and help improve fetal oxygenation, making it the priority intervention to address the decelerations.

2. The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Hemoglobin A1C.
• B. Postprandial blood glucose test.
• C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
• D. Fasting blood glucose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.

3. The nurse is caring for a one-year-old child following surgical correction of hypospadias. Which nursing action has the highest priority?

• A. Monitor urinary output
• B. Auscultate bowel sounds
• C. Observe appearance of stool
• D. Record percent of diet consumed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In caring for a one-year-old child post hypospadias surgery, the highest priority action is to monitor urinary output. This is crucial to assess kidney function and ensure there are no complications following the surgical procedure. Auscultating bowel sounds, observing stool appearance, and recording diet consumption are important assessments too, but in this case, monitoring urinary output takes precedence due to the nature of the surgery and potential complications related to urinary function.

4. A client at 18-weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated.
• B. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
• C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in a pregnant client can indicate potential congenital anomalies in the fetus. A follow-up sonogram is necessary to provide definitive results and further evaluate the fetus for any possible abnormalities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the client that scheduling a sonogram is the next appropriate step to assess the fetal well-being and address any concerns regarding the elevated AFP level. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a repeat AFP test alone, discussing surgical correction of defects, or assuming the results are false without further evaluation are not appropriate responses when dealing with a potentially serious issue like elevated AFP levels in pregnancy.

5. When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?

• A. Milia are white marks caused by sebaceous glands and typically resolve within 2 to 4 weeks.
• B. Meconium is the first stool and is typically dark green or black in color.
• C. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance mainly found in skin folds, providing a protective layer.
• D. Pseudostrabismus in newborns usually self-resolves without the need for intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.

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