Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

2. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
• C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
• D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

3. After administering the varicella vaccine to a 5-year-old child, which instruction should the nurse provide the child’s parent?

• A. Chewable children’s aspirin will not help prevent inflammation.
• B. Keep the child home for the next two days.
• C. Any fever should be monitored and reported if severe.
• D. Apply a cool pack to the injection site to reduce discomfort.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After receiving the varicella vaccine, applying a cool pack to the injection site can help reduce discomfort. This intervention is a simple and effective way to manage local reactions at the site of the vaccination, providing comfort to the child and potentially reducing swelling or pain. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because chewable children’s aspirin is not typically recommended after vaccination, keeping the child home is not necessary unless advised by a healthcare provider, and monitoring fever alone is not the primary instruction post-varicella vaccination.

4. To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, what should the nurse assess?

• A. Assess diaphragmatic breathing.
• B. Assess heart sounds.
• C. Monitor blood oxygen levels.
• D. Check for signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, the nurse should assess diaphragmatic breathing. In RDS, the baby may have difficulty breathing due to immature lungs, leading to shallow, rapid breathing movements. Assessing diaphragmatic breathing directly evaluates the respiratory effort and can help identify the presence of RDS. Choice B, assessing heart sounds, is not specific to diagnosing RDS but could be relevant for other conditions. Choice C, monitoring blood oxygen levels, is important but alone may not confirm RDS. Choice D, checking for signs of infection, is not a direct indicator of RDS but rather suggests a different issue.

5. A 6-year-old with heart failure (HF) gained 2 pounds in the last 24 hours. Which intervention is more important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Graph the daily weight for the past week.
• B. Decrease IV flow rate.
• C. Assess bilateral lung sounds.
• D. Restrict intake of oral fluids.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing bilateral lung sounds is crucial in this scenario as it can provide essential information about potential fluid accumulation in the lungs, indicating worsening heart failure. This assessment can guide immediate interventions to prevent further deterioration in the patient's condition.

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