Nursing Elites

1. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?

• A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
• B. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can ensure that will happen.
• C. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some activities you could do while in bed?
• D. Labor is difficult, and you need to use this time to rest before assuming child-caring duties.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.

2. A primipara has delivered a stillborn fetus at 30 weeks gestation. To assist the parents in the grieving process, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide an opportunity for the parents to hold their infant in privacy.
• B. Assist the couple in completing a request for autopsy.
• C. Encourage the couple to seek family counseling within the next few weeks.
• D. Explain the possible causes of fetal demise.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the parents to hold their infant in privacy is crucial for facilitating the grieving process after the loss of a stillborn child. This intimate moment can help the parents create memories, bond with their baby, and start the healing process.

3. At 20 weeks gestation, a client is scheduled for an ultrasound. In preparing the client for the procedure, the nurse should explain that the primary reason for conducting this diagnostic study is to obtain which information?

• A. Sex and size of the fetus.
• B. Chromosomal abnormalities.
• C. Fetal growth and gestational age.
• D. Lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary reason for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation is to assess fetal growth, gestational age, and anatomical development. This evaluation helps ensure the fetus is developing appropriately and can detect any potential issues that may require intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because at 20 weeks, the primary focus of the ultrasound is not to determine the sex of the fetus, detect chromosomal abnormalities, or assess the lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio. While these factors may be evaluated in pregnancy, they are not the primary reasons for an ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation.

4. The healthcare provider receives a newborn within the first minutes after vaginal delivery and intervenes to establish adequate respirations. What priority issue should the healthcare provider address to ensure the newborn's survival?

• A. Heat loss.
• B. Fluid balance.
• C. Bleeding tendencies.
• D. Hypoglycemia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Immediately after birth, newborns are at high risk for heat loss, which can lead to cold stress and associated complications. Maintaining thermal regulation is crucial to prevent hypothermia and ensure the newborn's survival. By addressing heat loss as a priority issue, the healthcare provider can help stabilize the newborn's temperature and support overall well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority issues immediately after birth. While fluid balance, bleeding tendencies, and hypoglycemia are important considerations in newborn care, heat loss is the primary concern right after delivery to prevent complications related to thermal regulation.

5. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
• B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
• C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
• D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.

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