Nursing Elites

1. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?

• A. Complete bedrest decreases oxygen needs and demands on the heart muscle tissue.
• B. We want your baby to be healthy, and this is the only way we can ensure that will happen.
• C. I know you're upset. Would you like to talk about some activities you could do while in bed?
• D. Labor is difficult, and you need to use this time to rest before assuming child-caring duties.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.

2. A 4-year-old boy presents with a rash and is diagnosed with varicella (chickenpox). What is the most appropriate intervention to manage this condition?

• A. Administer oral acyclovir.
• B. Apply calamine lotion to soothe itching.
• C. Encourage scratching to relieve itching.
• D. Encourage bed rest to avoid spreading the rash.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for managing varicella (chickenpox) in a 4-year-old child is to apply calamine lotion to soothe itching. Calamine lotion helps alleviate the itching associated with the chickenpox rash, providing relief to the child. It is important to discourage scratching to prevent complications such as scarring or secondary bacterial infections. Encouraging bed rest can be beneficial for comfort but is not the primary intervention to manage chickenpox.

3. The nurse is caring for a one-year-old child following surgical correction of hypospadias. Which nursing action has the highest priority?

• A. Monitor urinary output
• B. Auscultate bowel sounds
• C. Observe appearance of stool
• D. Record percent of diet consumed

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In caring for a one-year-old child post hypospadias surgery, the highest priority action is to monitor urinary output. This is crucial to assess kidney function and ensure there are no complications following the surgical procedure. Auscultating bowel sounds, observing stool appearance, and recording diet consumption are important assessments too, but in this case, monitoring urinary output takes precedence due to the nature of the surgery and potential complications related to urinary function.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

5. During a newborn assessment, which symptom would indicate respiratory distress if present in a newborn?

• A. Flaring of the nares.
• B. Shallow and irregular respirations.
• C. Respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute.
• D. Abdominal breathing with synchronous chest movement.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nares is a classic sign of respiratory distress in newborns. It indicates that the newborn is working hard to breathe, and immediate attention should be given to assess and address the respiratory status of the infant.

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