Nursing Elites

1. A 4-week-old premature infant has been receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen) for the last three weeks. Which assessment finding indicates to the healthcare provider that the drug is effective?

• A. Slowly increasing urinary output over the last week.
• B. Respiratory rate changes from the 40s to the 60s.
• C. Changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s.
• D. Change in indirect bilirubin from 12 mg/dl to 8 mg/dl.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, leading to an increase in red blood cell production and improving oxygen-carrying capacity. As the oxygenation status improves, there is a reduction in heart rate. Therefore, changes in apical heart rate from the 180s to the 140s indicate that the drug is effective. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not directly reflect the expected outcome of epoetin alfa therapy. Increasing urinary output, changes in respiratory rate, and decreasing bilirubin levels are not primary indicators of the drug's effectiveness in this context.

2. While caring for a laboring client on continuous fetal monitoring, the nurse notes a fetal heart rate pattern that falls and rises abruptly with a 'V' shaped appearance. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Change the maternal position.
• B. Administer oxygen at 10 L by mask.
• C. Prepare for a potential cesarean.
• D. Allow the client to begin pushing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of fetal heart rate patterns showing abrupt falls and rises with a 'V' shaped appearance, it indicates possible cord compression. Changing the maternal position, such as moving the mother onto her side, can relieve the pressure off the cord and help improve fetal oxygenation, making it the priority intervention to address the decelerations.

3. The nurse is caring for a postpartum client who is exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache 24 hours following the delivery of a normal newborn. Prior to the anesthesiologist's arrival on the unit, which action should the nurse perform?

• A. Apply an abdominal binder.
• B. Cleanse the spinal injection site.
• C. Insert an indwelling Foley catheter.
• D. Place procedure equipment at the bedside.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postpartum client exhibiting symptoms of a spinal headache, applying an abdominal binder is a priority action. The abdominal binder can help reduce the severity of a spinal headache by increasing intra-abdominal pressure, which may relieve pressure on the dural sac and alleviate symptoms. This intervention can be performed promptly by the nurse to provide immediate relief while waiting for further evaluation and management by the anesthesiologist. Cleansing the spinal injection site (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation as the headache is likely due to a dural puncture during epidural anesthesia rather than infection. Inserting an indwelling Foley catheter (Choice C) and placing procedure equipment at the bedside (Choice D) are not the appropriate actions to address a spinal headache and should not take precedence over applying an abdominal binder.

4. In caring for a 4-year-old boy recently diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD), which characteristic of the disease is most important for the nurse to focus on during the initial teaching?

• A. Lower legs become progressively weaker, causing a waddling, unsteady gait.
• B. Growth and development have been abnormal since birth.
• C. Muscular strength can be regained with physical exercise and therapy.
• D. Respiratory dysfunction and aspiration are prime concerns at this stage of the disease.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, a key characteristic is the progressive weakness in the lower legs, leading to a waddling, unsteady gait. The nurse should focus on teaching about this aspect as it helps in understanding the disease's progression and managing the symptoms effectively.

5. A loading dose of terbutaline (Brethine) 250 mcg IV is prescribed for a client in preterm labor. Brethine 20 mg is added to 1,000 mL of D5W. How many milliliters of the solution should the nurse administer?

• A. 45
• B. 15 mL
• C. 4
• D. 13

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the amount of terbutaline to administer, first convert the dose to the same unit. 250 mcg = 0.25 mg. Next, set up a proportion: 20 mg is to 1000 mL as 0.25 mg is to X mL. Cross multiply and solve for X: 20 × X = 0.25 × 1000. X = (0.25 × 1000) / 20 = 12.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 13 mL of the solution. Choice A is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice B is incorrect as it does not consider the accurate conversion and calculation. Choice C is incorrect as it is not the result of the correct proportion calculation.

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