HESI RN
Maternity HESI Quizlet
1. After two miscarriages, a client is instructed to increase her daily intake of foods that include folic acid. The client does not like green leafy vegetables and states she is allergic to soy. Which food should the nurse suggest that the client eat to obtain folic acid?
- A. Strawberries.
 - B. Yogurt.
 - C. Collard greens.
 - D. Whole milk.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Collard greens are a good source of folic acid, which is important for preventing neural tube defects, especially in clients with a history of miscarriages. Since the client does not like green leafy vegetables, collard greens could be suggested as an alternative source of folic acid. Yogurt and whole milk do not contain significant amounts of folic acid, and while strawberries are a healthy choice, they are not a high source of folic acid compared to collard greens.
2. A mother who is breastfeeding her baby receives instructions from the nurse. Which instruction is most effective to prevent nipple soreness?
- A. Wear a cotton bra.
 - B. Increase nursing time gradually.
 - C. Correctly place the infant on the breast.
 - D. Manually express a small amount of milk before nursing.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most effective instruction to prevent nipple soreness when breastfeeding is to correctly place the infant on the breast. Proper latch-on techniques ensure that the baby is properly positioned, reducing the risk of nipple soreness. When the baby is positioned correctly, they can nurse effectively without causing discomfort to the mother.
3. In which chromosome pattern is Duchenne disease inherited?
- A. Autosomal dominant
 - B. Autosomal recessive
 - C. X-linked recessive
 - D. Mitochondrial
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Duchenne disease is caused by a mutation in the DMD gene located on the X chromosome, leading to an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Males are typically affected by this disorder as they have only one X chromosome, while females are carriers with one normal and one affected X chromosome.
4. A 26-year-old, gravida 2, para 1 client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks gestation in preterm labor. She is given 3 doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine) 0.25 mg subcutaneously to stop her labor contractions. The LPN/LVN plans to monitor for which primary side effect of terbutaline sulfate?
- A. Drowsiness and bradycardia.
 - B. Depressed reflexes and increased respirations.
 - C. Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness.
 - D. A flushed, warm feeling and a dry mouth.
 
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate are related to its beta-adrenergic effects. Tachycardia and nervousness are common side effects of terbutaline sulfate. Tachycardia is expected due to the drug's beta-agonist properties, while nervousness can result from the stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors. It is crucial to monitor the client for these side effects to ensure early recognition and appropriate management.
5. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?
- A. Maternal blood pressure.
 - B. Level of pain sensation
 - C. Station of presenting part.
 - D. Variability of fetal heart rate.
 
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Following the administration of epidural anesthesia, the most crucial assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct is monitoring maternal blood pressure. Epidural anesthesia can lead to hypotension as a common side effect, which can have significant implications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, close monitoring of maternal blood pressure is essential to detect and manage any hypotensive episodes promptly. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments during labor and delivery, but in this specific scenario of post-epidural anesthesia, monitoring maternal blood pressure takes precedence due to the potential risk of hypotension.
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