a 16 year old gravida 1 para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia she is not presently convulsing which inter
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HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet

1. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in the client's nursing care plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the case of eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep an airway at the bedside. Eclampsia is associated with a high risk of convulsions, and having an airway readily available is crucial for prompt intervention in the event of seizures. Assessing temperature, allowing family visitation, and monitoring vital signs are important aspects of care but ensuring airway patency takes precedence in this situation to manage potential complications and ensure the client's safety.

2. The healthcare provider is providing preconception counseling. Which supplement should the provider recommend to help prevent the occurrence of anencephaly?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy is crucial for reducing the risk of neural tube defects, including anencephaly. Anencephaly is a severe birth defect in which a baby is born without parts of the brain and skull. Folic acid plays a key role in neural tube development and can significantly lower the chances of such defects when taken prior to conception and in early pregnancy.

3. The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child with Reye’s syndrome. Which goal of treatment most clearly relates to caring for this child?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Reducing cerebral edema and lowering intracranial pressure is the primary goal of treatment for Reye’s syndrome.

4. In which chromosome pattern is Duchenne disease inherited?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Duchenne disease is caused by a mutation in the DMD gene located on the X chromosome, leading to an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern. Males are typically affected by this disorder as they have only one X chromosome, while females are carriers with one normal and one affected X chromosome.

5. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.

Similar Questions

The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?
A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?
A multiparous client is involuntarily pushing while being wheeled into the labor triage area. The nurse observes the fetal head presenting at the perineum. Which action should the nurse take?
When assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?
The client at 10 weeks' gestation is palpated with the fundus at 3 fingerbreadths above the pubic symphysis. The client reports nausea, vomiting, and scant dark brown vaginal discharge. What action should the nurse take?

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