Nursing Elites

1. A 16-year-old gravida 1, para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She is not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in the client's nursing care plan?

• A. Assess temperature every hour.
• B. Allow liberal family visitation.
• C. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• D. Keep an airway at the bedside.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the case of eclampsia, the priority intervention is to keep an airway at the bedside. Eclampsia is associated with a high risk of convulsions, and having an airway readily available is crucial for prompt intervention in the event of seizures. Assessing temperature, allowing family visitation, and monitoring vital signs are important aspects of care but ensuring airway patency takes precedence in this situation to manage potential complications and ensure the client's safety.

2. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

3. A newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is being assessed. What should be the nurse's initial action?

• A. Assess bilirubin level.
• B. Administer phototherapy.
• C. Encourage feeding to help reduce bilirubin levels.
• D. Perform a bilirubin test every hour.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when assessing a newborn with a yellow abdomen and chest is to initially assess the bilirubin level. This helps determine the severity of jaundice in the newborn. Administering phototherapy (choice B) is a treatment intervention that follows the assessment. Encouraging feeding (choice C) can help with bilirubin excretion but is not the initial assessment. Performing a bilirubin test every hour (choice D) may not be necessary initially and could lead to unnecessary interventions.

4. The LPN/LVN caring for a laboring client encourages her to void at least q2h, and records each time the client empties her bladder. What is the primary reason for implementing this nursing intervention?

• A. Emptying the bladder during delivery is difficult because of the position of the presenting fetal part.
• B. An over-distended bladder could be traumatized during labor as well as prolong the progress of labor.
• C. Urine specimens for glucose and protein must be obtained at certain intervals throughout labor.
• D. Frequent voiding minimizes the need for catheterization, which increases the chance of bladder infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary reason for encouraging the laboring client to void regularly is to prevent an over-distended bladder, which could impede the descent of the fetus, prolong labor, and be at risk for trauma during delivery. Choice A is incorrect because the difficulty in emptying the bladder during delivery is not the main reason for this nursing intervention. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to obtaining urine specimens for glucose and protein, not the primary reason for encouraging voiding. Choice D is incorrect because although frequent voiding can indeed minimize the need for catheterization, the primary reason is to prevent an over-distended bladder and potential complications.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes Amoxicillin 500mg PO every 8hrs for a child who weighs 22 pounds. The available suspension is labeled Amoxicillin Suspension 250mg/5ml. The recommended maximum dose is 50mg/kg/24hr. How many mL should the nurse administer in a single dose based on the child’s weight?

• A. 10mL
• B. 15mL
• C. 7.5mL
• D. 5mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose for the child weighing 22 pounds, first convert the weight to kg: 22 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 10 kg. The maximum dose based on weight would be 10 kg × 50 mg/kg/24hr = 500 mg/24hr. Since the medication is prescribed every 8 hours, the dose for each administration would be 500 mg ÷ 3 doses = 166.67 mg. As the available suspension is 250mg/5ml, the nurse should administer 166.67 mg ÷ 250 mg/mL = 0.67 mL per dose. However, since it's not practical to administer a fraction of a milliliter, the nurse should round up to the nearest appropriate dose, which is 10mL.

Similar Questions