Nursing Elites

1. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

• A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
• B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
• C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
• D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

2. The LPN/LVN assesses a client admitted to the labor and delivery unit and obtains the following data: dark red vaginal bleeding, uterus slightly tense between contractions, BP 110/68, FHR 110 beats/minute, cervix 1 cm dilated and uneffaced. Based on these assessment findings, what intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Insert an internal fetal monitor.
• B. Assess for cervical changes q1h.
• C. Monitor bleeding from IV sites.
• D. Perform Leopold's maneuvers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring for bleeding from IV sites is the priority intervention in this situation. The dark red vaginal bleeding, uterine tension, and other assessment findings suggest a potential placental abruption. Monitoring bleeding from IV sites can help detect coagulopathy, which may be associated with placental abruption. Options A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions in this scenario. Inserting an internal fetal monitor, assessing for cervical changes, and performing Leopold's maneuvers are not the priority actions when dark red vaginal bleeding and uterine tension are present, indicating a potential emergency situation.

3. After breastfeeding for 10 minutes at each breast, a new mother calls the nurse to the postpartum room to help change the newborn's diaper. As the mother begins the diaper change, the newborn spits up the breast milk. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Wipe away the spit-up and assist the mother with the diaper change.
• B. Sit the newborn upright and burp by rubbing or patting the upper back.
• C. Place the newborn in a position with the head lower than the feet.
• D. Turn the newborn to the side and use bulb suction for the mouth and nares.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a newborn spits up breast milk following feeding, the priority action for the nurse is to sit the newborn upright and burp by rubbing or patting the upper back. This position helps release trapped air and reduces the likelihood of further spit-up or aspiration. It is essential to address this first to prevent potential complications and ensure the newborn's comfort and safety.

4. A client who had her first baby three months ago and is breastfeeding her infant tells the nurse that she is currently using the same diaphragm that she used before becoming pregnant. What information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. Use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm is obtained.
• B. After weaning, the diaphragm should be resized.
• C. Avoid intercourse during ovulation until the diaphragm size is reassessed.
• D. If weight gain during pregnancy was no more than 20 pounds, the diaphragm is safe to use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm that fits correctly post-pregnancy is obtained. It is essential to ensure proper fit for effective contraception, making it crucial to use an alternative method until the diaphragm is resized.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

• A. Gestational diabetes.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Urinary tract infection.
• D. Swelling in lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

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