HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. A breastfeeding infant, screened for congenital hypothyroidism, is found to have low levels of thyroxine (T4) and high levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). What is the best explanation for this finding?
- A. The thyroxine level is low because the TSH level is high.
- B. High thyroxine levels do not normally occur in breastfeeding infants.
- C. The thyroid gland does not produce normal levels of thyroxine for several weeks after birth.
- D. The TSH is high because of the low production of T4 by the thyroid.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: High TSH and low T4 levels indicate that the thyroid gland is not producing enough hormones, which is a sign of congenital hypothyroidism. In this case, the high TSH is a compensatory response by the body to stimulate the thyroid to produce more T4. Choice A is incorrect because TSH does not directly affect T4 levels; rather, it is the other way around where low T4 levels lead to high TSH levels. Choice B is incorrect because high thyroxine levels are not expected in congenital hypothyroidism. Choice C is incorrect as the thyroid gland should be producing normal levels of thyroxine shortly after birth, making this explanation unlikely in the context of congenital hypothyroidism.
2. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as
- A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
- B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
- C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
- D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.
3. Client teaching is an important part of the maternity nurse's role. Which factor has the greatest influence on successful teaching of the gravid client?
- A. The client's readiness to learn.
- B. The client's educational background.
- C. The order in which the information is presented.
- D. The extent to which the pregnancy was planned.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's readiness to learn is the most critical factor influencing successful teaching of the gravid client. When a client is receptive and motivated to learn, they are more likely to engage with the information provided, leading to better understanding and retention.
4. How can a nurse make a blind 8-year-old girl admitted to the hospital more comfortable?
- A. Bring familiar toys from home, such as a bear or doll.
- B. Explain the surroundings to the child.
- C. Allow the child to explore the room.
- D. Provide audio books and music.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to bring familiar toys from home, such as a bear or doll. This action provides comfort and a sense of security for the child, as it allows her to have familiar objects around her in an unfamiliar environment, which can help reduce anxiety and stress during her hospital stay.
5. The client is admitted in active labor with a cervix that is 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced, and the presenting part at 0 station. An hour later, the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Palpate the client’s bladder.
- B. Check the pH of the vaginal fluid.
- C. Review the fetal heart rate pattern.
- D. Determine cervical dilation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should prioritize determining cervical dilation as it helps in assessing the progress of labor and ensures it is safe for the client to move. Changes in cervical dilation may indicate the advancement of labor, warranting appropriate interventions or restrictions on movement to prevent complications. While checking the client's bladder may be important to ensure it's not distended, determining cervical dilation takes precedence in this scenario. Checking the pH of the vaginal fluid is not relevant in this situation, and reviewing the fetal heart rate pattern, although important, is not the first action to take when the client expresses the need to go to the bathroom.
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