Nursing Elites

1. A full-term, 24-hour-old infant in the nursery regurgitates and suddenly turns cyanotic. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Suction the oral and nasal passages.
• B. Give oxygen by positive pressure.
• C. Stimulate the infant to cry.
• D. Turn the infant onto the right side.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a situation where an infant regurgitates and turns cyanotic, the priority action should be to clear any potential airway obstruction. Suctioning the oral and nasal passages is crucial to ensure the infant's airway is clear and allow for proper breathing. This intervention takes precedence over providing oxygen, stimulating the infant to cry, or repositioning the infant.

2. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

• A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
• B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
• C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
• D. Recent decreased urinary output.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

3. A new mother calls the nurse stating that she wants to start feeding her 6-month-old child something besides breast milk, but is concerned that the infant is too young to start eating solid foods. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Advise the mother to wait at least another month before starting any solid foods.
• B. Instruct the mother to offer a few spoons of 2 or 3 pureed fruits at each meal.
• C. Reassure the mother that the infant is old enough to eat iron-fortified cereal.
• D. Encourage the mother to schedule a developmental assessment of the infant.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 6 months, infants are generally ready to start eating iron-fortified cereals as their iron stores begin to deplete. Introducing iron-fortified cereals at this age helps meet the infant's nutritional needs, particularly for iron, which becomes deficient as the infant's iron reserves diminish. It is a safe and appropriate first food to introduce to infants around 6 months of age, along with continued breastfeeding or formula feeding. Choice A is incorrect because waiting another month is not necessary if the infant is 6 months old. Choice B is incorrect as introducing pureed fruits as the first food may not provide the necessary iron that the infant needs at this stage. Choice D is also incorrect as scheduling a developmental assessment is not indicated solely based on the desire to start solid foods; it is more appropriate to reassure the mother about starting iron-fortified cereal.

4. The healthcare provider is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. Which client requires the most caution when carrying out this procedure?

• A. A gravida 6, para 5 who is 38 years of age and in early labor.
• B. A 37-week primigravida who presents at 100% effacement, 3 cm cervical dilation, and a -1 station.
• C. A gravida 2, para 1 who is at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station admitted for induction of labor due to postdates.
• D. A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilation and the presenting part is not engaged.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client at 40 weeks of gestation with a 6 cm cervical dilation and a presenting part that is not engaged requires the most caution during an enema procedure. An unengaged presenting part increases the risk of cord prolapse, which can be a serious complication during the procedure. This situation demands careful attention to prevent potential complications and ensure the safety of the client and fetus. Choice A is incorrect as being in early labor does not pose the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice B describes a client at 37 weeks with signs of early labor but does not indicate the same level of risk as an unengaged presenting part. Choice C involves a client at 1 cm cervical dilation and a 0 station with no mention of an unengaged presenting part, making it a less critical situation compared to an unengaged presentation, as in Choice D.

5. At 35 weeks gestation, a client complains of 'pain whenever the baby moves.' The nurse notes a temperature of 101.2 F (38.4 C) with severe abdominal or uterine tenderness on palpation. What condition do these findings indicate?

• A. Round ligament strain.
• B. Chorioamnionitis.
• C. Abruptio placentae.
• D. Viral infection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's symptoms of fever and abdominal tenderness, along with the gestational age, are classic signs of chorioamnionitis, an infection of the amniotic fluid. Chorioamnionitis is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Round ligament strain (Choice A) typically presents with sharp, stabbing pain on the sides of the abdomen and is not associated with fever or uterine tenderness. Abruptio placentae (Choice C) presents with sudden-onset vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain, often with a board-like uterus. Viral infections (Choice D) may present with a variety of symptoms, but the combination of fever, abdominal tenderness, and gestational age in this scenario points more towards chorioamnionitis.

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