Nursing Elites

1. Using Nägele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client who reports that the first day of her last menstrual period was August 2, 2006?

• A. April 25, 2007.
• B. May 9, 2007.
• C. May 29, 2007.
• D. June 2, 2007.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nägele's rule is used to estimate the date of delivery. It involves adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (August 2), which gives August 9. Then, subtracting 3 months from August 9, we arrive at May 9 of the following year as the estimated date of delivery. This makes choice B, 'May 9, 2007,' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation based on Nägele's rule.

2. After a full-term vaginal delivery, a postpartum client's white blood cell count is 15,000/mm3. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the differential, as the WBC count can be normal for this client.
• B. Assess the client's temperature, pulse, and respirations every 4 hours.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider, as this finding may indicate infection.
• D. Assess the client's perineal area for signs of a perineal hematoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In postpartum clients, a white blood cell count of 15,000/mm3 can be within normal limits due to physiological changes that occur after childbirth. Checking the differential count would provide a more detailed analysis of the specific types of white blood cells present, helping to differentiate between normal postpartum changes and potential infection. This action allows the nurse to gather more information before escalating the situation to the healthcare provider or initiating other assessments. Assessing vital signs and the perineal area are important aspects of postpartum care but may not be the priority in this scenario where the white blood cell count can be influenced by normal physiological changes.

3. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is

• A. January 14-15.
• B. January 22-23.
• C. January 30-31.
• D. February 6-7.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.

4. When performing the daily head-to-toe assessment of a 1-day-old newborn, the nurse observes a yellow tint to the skin on the forehead, sternum, and abdomen. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Measure bilirubin levels using transcutaneous bilirubinometry.
• B. Evaluate cord blood Coombs test results.
• C. Review maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor.
• D. Prepare the newborn for phototherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The presence of a yellow tint on the skin of a newborn suggests jaundice. The initial step in managing jaundice in a newborn is to measure bilirubin levels, typically done using transcutaneous bilirubinometry. This measurement helps determine the severity of jaundice and guides appropriate treatment interventions. Evaluating cord blood Coombs test results or reviewing maternal medical records for blood type and Rh factor are not the immediate actions indicated when jaundice is suspected. Phototherapy may be considered after confirming elevated bilirubin levels and assessing the need for treatment.

5. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

Similar Questions