HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. Using Nägele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery for a pregnant client who reports that the first day of her last menstrual period was August 2, 2006?
- A. April 25, 2007.
- B. May 9, 2007.
- C. May 29, 2007.
- D. June 2, 2007.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nägele's rule is used to estimate the date of delivery. It involves adding 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (August 2), which gives August 9. Then, subtracting 3 months from August 9, we arrive at May 9 of the following year as the estimated date of delivery. This makes choice B, 'May 9, 2007,' the correct answer. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct calculation based on Nägele's rule.
2. What is the priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula?
- A. Body temperature.
- B. Level of pain.
- C. Time of first void.
- D. Number of vessels in the cord.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority nursing assessment immediately following the birth of an infant with esophageal atresia and a tracheoesophageal (TE) fistula is to check the number of vessels in the cord. This assessment is crucial to identify any potential anomalies related to the TE fistula, as abnormalities in the cord vessels may indicate associated congenital anomalies that need immediate attention.
3. When assessing a client who is at 12-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN recommends that she and her husband consider attending childbirth preparation classes. When is the best time for the couple to attend these classes?
- A. At 16 weeks gestation.
- B. At 20 weeks gestation.
- C. At 24 weeks gestation.
- D. At 30 weeks gestation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best time for the couple to attend childbirth preparation classes is around 30 weeks gestation, which is during the third trimester. Attending classes at this time allows the couple to learn essential information and skills as labor and delivery are approaching, maximizing the benefit of the classes. Option A is too early in the second trimester, and the couple might forget important details by the time labor approaches. Option B is also early in the second trimester, and attending later allows for better preparation. Option C is still in the second trimester, and waiting until the third trimester provides more practical knowledge closer to delivery.
4. What is the most important assessment for the healthcare provider to conduct before the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client at 40 weeks' gestation?
- A. Maternal blood pressure.
- B. Level of pain sensation.
- C. Station of presenting part.
- D. Variability of fetal heart rate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing maternal blood pressure is crucial before administering epidural anesthesia because it can cause hypotension, affecting both the mother and the fetus. Hypotension can lead to decreased placental perfusion, potentially compromising the fetal oxygen supply. Monitoring and maintaining maternal blood pressure within a safe range are essential to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the fetus during the administration of epidural anesthesia. The other options, such as assessing the level of pain sensation, station of presenting part, and variability of fetal heart rate, are important in obstetric care but are not as critical as monitoring maternal blood pressure to prevent complications related to epidural anesthesia administration.
5. The LPN/LVN identifies crepitus when examining the chest of a newborn who was delivered vaginally. Which further assessment should the nurse perform?
- A. Elicit a positive scarf sign on the affected side.
- B. Observe for an asymmetrical Moro (startle) reflex.
- C. Watch for swelling of fingers on the affected side.
- D. Note paralysis of the affected extremity and muscles.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Crepitus in a newborn's chest following vaginal delivery may indicate a clavicle fracture. Observing for an asymmetrical Moro reflex is essential because it can indicate potential nerve damage or fracture, which may be associated with the crepitus identified during the examination.
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