HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. After a client delivered vaginally 2 days ago, what information should you share with her if she wants to resume using her diaphragm for birth control?
- A. The diaphragm is the most effective form of contraception.
- B. The diaphragm must be refitted after childbirth.
- C. Vaseline lubricant should be used when inserting the diaphragm.
- D. The diaphragm should be inserted 2 to 4 hours before intercourse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After childbirth, the diaphragm must be refitted to ensure a proper fit and effectiveness. Changes in the body post-delivery can affect the fit of the diaphragm, making it necessary to get refitted. Choice A is incorrect because while the diaphragm can be effective, it is not the most effective form of contraception. Choice C is incorrect because oil-based lubricants like Vaseline can damage latex diaphragms. Choice D is incorrect because the diaphragm should be inserted no more than 2 hours before intercourse, not 2 to 4 hours.
2. When can a woman who thinks she may be pregnant use a home pregnancy test to diagnose pregnancy?
- A. A home pregnancy test can be used right after your first missed period.
- B. These tests are most accurate after you have missed your second period.
- C. Home pregnancy tests often give false positives and should not be trusted.
- D. The test can provide accurate information when used right after ovulation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Home pregnancy tests detect hCG, a hormone produced during pregnancy, and are most accurate after the first missed period when hCG levels are higher. Testing too early may result in a false negative. Waiting until after the first missed period increases the reliability of the test results. Choice B is incorrect as waiting until after the second missed period is unnecessary and may delay seeking appropriate healthcare. Choice C is incorrect as home pregnancy tests are generally reliable when used correctly. Choice D is incorrect because ovulation occurs before the period, and testing immediately after ovulation may not provide accurate results.
3. Insulin therapy is initiated for a 12-year-old child who is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which action is most important for the nurse to include in the child’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor serum glucose for adjustment in the infusion rate of regular insulin (Novolin R).
- B. Determine the child’s compliance schedule for subcutaneous NPH insulin (Humulin N).
- C. Demonstrate to the parents how to program an insulin pen for daily glucose regulation.
- D. Consult with the healthcare provider about the use of insulin detemir (Levemir Flex Pen).
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In managing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), monitoring serum glucose levels is crucial to adjust the infusion rate of regular insulin effectively. This helps in controlling blood glucose levels and preventing complications associated with DKA. Close monitoring and adjustments based on glucose levels are essential for the successful management of DKA. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on a different type of insulin and compliance schedule without addressing the immediate needs of managing DKA. Choice C is not the priority action and involves educating parents on a different method of insulin administration. Choice D is also not the most important action as it suggests consulting with the healthcare provider about a different type of insulin rather than focusing on immediate glucose monitoring for insulin adjustment in DKA management.
4. The LPN/LVN should explain to a 30-year-old gravida client that alpha fetoprotein testing is recommended for which purpose?
- A. Detect cardiovascular disorders.
- B. Screen for neural tube defects.
- C. Monitor placental functioning.
- D. Assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Screen for neural tube defects. Alpha fetoprotein testing is primarily used to screen for neural tube defects and other fetal abnormalities. It is not used to detect cardiovascular disorders, monitor placental functioning, or assess for maternal pre-eclampsia.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 2-hour-old infant born by cesarean delivery at 39-weeks gestation. Which assessment finding should receive the highest priority when planning the infant’s care?
- A. Blood pressure 76/42 mmHg.
- B. Faint heart murmur.
- C. Respiratory rate of 76 breaths/minute.
- D. Blood glucose 45 mg/dl.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A high respiratory rate in a newborn is concerning as it may indicate respiratory distress, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring and addressing respiratory issues take precedence over other parameters in the initial assessment of a newborn. The blood pressure, heart murmur, and blood glucose levels are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress in a newborn.
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